Practice Test

Q1) Under repo rate banks can borrow above SLR requirements, under MSF, banks can borrow within SLR requirements.
Select the above correct statements.
Show Answer

Q2) Which among the following in India can use ‘Repo Bonds’ to raise short term money from markets?
1. Commercial Bank
2. Regional Bank
3. Corporate
4. Governments
Select the above correct statements
Show Answer

Q3) A Company making a public of securities has to file a Draft Red Herring Prospects with SEBI through an eligible merchant banker prior to filling a prospects with the registrar of Companies. What information does this Draft Red Herring Prospects provide?
1. Financial details about the company
2. Price and size of offerings
3. Products details
4. Objects of raising money
Select the above correct statements
Show Answer

Q4) Consider the following statements:
1. Government of India has set up a Price Monitoring Cell(PM
C) in the department of Agriculture to monitor and analyze price data and trends of availability of essential commodities.
2. Price Monitoring Cell (PMC) monitors 21 essential commodities.
Select the above correct statements.
Show Answer

Q5) One of the economic laws says that as income increases, the proportion of starchy staples in the food basket decline relative to the share of more expensive sources of calories. Recent NSSO data showing a significant increase in the share of protein rich items in total food expenditure, both in rural and urban areas of India to confirm this hypothesis.

What this hypothesis is known as?
Show Answer

Q6) Consider the following statements about Infrastructure Debt Fund (IDF) in India:
1. Infrastructure debt fund are regulated by Planning commission
2. Infrastructure debt fund can be established as a trust in India, but not in company.
Select the above correct statements.
Show Answer

Q7) In one of the Seminar’s the Governor of RBI said that the schemes like ‘Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme’ (MNREGA) have played role in increasing inflation. How MNREGA could have stirred up inflationary pressure?
1. By Increasing demand 2. By increasing rural wage
3. By increasing production Select the above correct statements.
Show Answer

Q8) In context with India’s oil and gas fields consider the following.
1. Only gas Fields 2. Only Oil fields 3. Oil and gas fields.
Which among the following option gives the correct order of numbers of fields classified as above?
Show Answer

Q9) It has been generally viewed that when an economy grows beyond its potential growth rate, it causes inflation. How does growing faster than the potential rate cause inflation? Show Answer

Q10) Consider the following statement context with India’s planning commission:
1. A Planning in the sense of formal projects on the basis of the certain sets of assumption started only in the second five year plan in India.
2. The Mahalanobis model of growing corporate possibilities opened up the foreign trade. Select the above correct statements.
Show Answer

Q11) Which among the following given a justification about the fact ‘Green Revolution has not been green as it made out to be’
1. It helped only farmers 2. It confined to selected areas only
3. It confined only to wheat
Select the above correct statements
Show Answer

Q12) Consider the following
1. Trade and earn revenue
2. Become the sole controller of food grain supply
3. Prevent Black marketing
Which among the following are the primary objectives of the government to buy food grains directly from the farmers?
Show Answer

Q13) India has a high export earnings from diamonds. In this context, consider the following:
1. Small Production of Industrial Diamonds
2. High Diamonds stock
3. Availability of experts on cutting and polishing.
Which among the above is most appropriate reason being the above statements?
Show Answer

Q14) 1853 is a landmark in India’s Transport because of:
1. First cargo plane 2. First train 3. First sir plane
4. First cargo ship
Which of the above is correct answer?
Show Answer

Q15) Consider the following factors:
1. High investment in Industries
2. Expanding market
3. Dynamic entrepreneurship
Which of the above are required for accelerated growth of an economy?
Show Answer

Q16) Which among the following is the most important bulk import of India? Show Answer

Q17) Which among the following is characterizes by highest fixed cost and lowest Running cost? Show Answer

Q18) Consider the following works:
1. Arrange facilities for transport of Agriculture produce
2. Acquire building and go down at suitable places
3. Subscribing to share capital of state warehousing corporations
Which among the above function a performed by central warehousing corporation
Show Answer

Q19) Which among the following is the cheapest mode of transport in terms of fixed plus running costs? Show Answer

Q20) Consider the following
1. Use of hybrid yielding varieties seeds. 2. Uneconomical and fragmented
3. Inefficient labour force.
Which among the above are the reasons for low productivity in Indian Agriculture?
Show Answer

Q21) Which among the following was set up by government of India in 1988 with objective of developing multi model logistics support for India’s International and domestic containerizes cargo and trade Show Answer

Q22) Who among the following leaders announced the industrial policy of 1956? Show Answer

Q23) Which among the following is correct full form of SIDO: Show Answer

Q24) What is the meaning of “financing” in the financial market? Show Answer

Q25) Financial instrument such as commercial paper can be sold Show Answer

Q26) Type of instrument whoever holds it, gets interest and principal amount is classified as Show Answer

Q27) Negotiable deposit certificate are traded in Show Answer

Q28) In primary markets, property of shares which made it easy to sell newly issued security is considered as Show Answer

Q29) India is a member of the International Monetary Fund since __________. Show Answer

Q30) Markets in which derivatives are traded, are classified as Show Answer

Q31) Transaction cost of trading of financial instruments in centralized market is classified as Show Answer

Q32) Type of market in which securities with less than one year maturity are traded, is classified as Show Answer

Q33) Financial instruments of public markets include Show Answer

Q34) The market which deals in trade bills, promissory notes and government papers or bills, which are drawn for short-periods is called Show Answer

Q35) A financial market in which short-term papers or bills are brought and sold is known as Show Answer

Q36) In order to protect the interests of investors and regulate the working of stock exchanges, the Government in 1988 set up the Show Answer

Q37) The financial market for long-term funds is known as Show Answer

Q38) Finance Function comprises Show Answer

Q39) The objective of wealth maximization takes into account Show Answer

Q40) Financial management mainly focuses on Show Answer

Q41) When the market's required rate of return for a particular bond is much less than its coupon rate, the bond is selling at Show Answer

Q42) If an investor may have to sell a bond prior to maturity and interest rates have risen since the bond was purchased, the investor is exposed to Show Answer

Q43) Interest rates and bond prices Show Answer

Q44) Development financial institutions include__________. Show Answer

Q45) The unorganized financial system includes__________. Show Answer

Q46) Development financial institutions have been established to cater to __________ of the industrial sector. Show Answer

Q47) The ultimate source of money in India is__________. Show Answer

Q48) Long-term debt instruments have a maturity of__________. Show Answer

Q49) The organized financial system includes__________. Show Answer

Q50) The unorganized financial system comprises of __________. Show Answer

Q51) The lender of the last resort to the market is the __________. Show Answer

Q52) The term refers financial investment in a highly risky and growth oriented venture with the objective of earning a high rate of return. Show Answer

Q53) .............. is a road towards a high growth economy. Show Answer

Q54) ............... act as an intermediary to link up the sources of ideas and the sources of fund. Show Answer

Q55) V C Fs of specialized financial institution promoted by . Show Answer

Q56) I D B I , I F C I , I C I C I etc. are promoted by . Show Answer

Q57) Write the example of V C Fs of state financial institution. Show Answer

Q58) Which of the following is a V C F promoted by specialized financial institution. Show Answer

Q59) off shore VCFs are promoted by _________& financial institution. Show Answer

Q60) High risk is an outstanding feature of..................... Show Answer

Q61) _________is needed for developing a product in the initial stages. Show Answer

Q62) ............... capital is needed for product development and initial marketing Show Answer

Q63) _______provided at a stage when product has been launched in the market but has not earned enough profits to meet future capital needs. Show Answer

Q64) ............... capital is provided for early manufacturing and marketing expense. Show Answer

Q65) The additional finance provided by VCFs to overcome fledging stage is called . Show Answer

Q66) ............... is known as Mezzanine capital. Show Answer

Q67) _________stage is called fledging stage. Show Answer

Q68) -----------stage of financing includes financing development, expansion, buyout etc. Show Answer

Q69) ............... is known as bridge finance. Show Answer

Q70) ............... refers to transfer of management control. Show Answer

Q71) ............... refer to the process of acquiring an existing product line by the current operating management Show Answer

Q72) We should keep our savings with banks because Show Answer

Q73) Bank does not give loan against Show Answer

Q74) Bank having maximum number of branches in India Show Answer

Q75) 100/- Rupee note is signed by Show Answer

Q76) ATM password should be kept in Show Answer

Q77) ATM password to be shared only with Show Answer

Q78) Nomination can be done in Show Answer

Q79) Who is the present Governor of RBI? Show Answer

Q80) Minimum age required to open SB account in the bank Show Answer

Q81) Bank does not provide loans for Show Answer

Q82) KYC means Show Answer

Q83) Loans from money lenders are Show Answer

Q84) ATM means Show Answer

Q85) Timely repayment of loans results Show Answer

Q86) Defaulter of loan means Show Answer

Q87) Life insurance means Show Answer

Q88) General Insurance relates to insurance against Show Answer

Q89) Aadhaar is Show Answer

Q90) E or S means Show Answer

Q91) Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI) was established in : Show Answer

Q92) States earn maximum revenue through Show Answer

Q93) Abid Husain Committee is related to ? Show Answer

Q94) Which one of the following is the banker of the banks Show Answer

Q95) Which five year plan is also known as "Gadgil Yojana" Show Answer

Q96) The increase in oil seeds production was due to ? Show Answer

Q97) The progress in increase of fish production was called Show Answer

Q98) Which state is the biggest tea producer in the country ? Show Answer

Q99) India holds the third position in production of Sugar cane. Show Answer

Q100) When was SIDBI established Show Answer

Q101) What is one of the major objectives of SIDBI ? Show Answer

Q102) Which among the following is not an initiative of SIDBI? Show Answer

Q103) Who has the majority shareholding in SIDBI? Show Answer

Q104) What is the authorised capital of SIDBI? Show Answer

Q105) What is the paid up capital of SIDBI? Show Answer

Q106) Which one out of the following subsidiaries has been set up by SIDBI with the concept of “funding the unfunded” micro enterprises Show Answer

Q107) What is the authorised capital of MUDRA? Show Answer

Q108) What is the maximum limit of loan that can be availed under under Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana? Show Answer

Q109) According to funding needs, under how many categories beneficiaries are divided under MUDRA? Show Answer

Q110) Which of the following bank is the sponsor bank of Central Madhya Pradesh Gramin Bank? Show Answer

Q111) Which of the following bank is the sponsor bank of Chaitanya Godavari Grameena Bank? Show Answer

Q112) Which of the following bank is the sponsor bank of Chhattisgarh RajyaGramin Bank? Show Answer

Q113) Which of the following bank is the sponsor bank of Dena Gujarat Gramin Bank? Show Answer

Q114) Which of the following bank is the sponsor bank of EllaquaiDehati Bank? Show Answer

Q115) Which of the following bank is (?????) Show Answer

Q116) Which of the following bank is the sponsor bank of J&K Grameen Bank? Show Answer

Q117) Which of the following bank is the sponsor bank of Jharkhand Gramin Bank? Show Answer

Q118) Which of the following bank is the sponsor bank of Karnataka VikasGrameena Bank? Show Answer

Q119) The International Co-operative Alliance appointed a sub-committee in for the first reformulation of Principles of Co-operative Sector. Show Answer

Q120) For the second reformulation of Principles of Co-operative Sector, The International Co-operative Alliance appointed a sub-committee in Show Answer

Q121) The International Co-operative Alliance revised the co-operative principles for the third time in its Manchester Congress in Show Answer

Q122) ..............has been compared to a “State within A State” Show Answer

Q123) .................plays an equalizing role as a welfare factor in a capitalistic economy. Show Answer

Q124) is a voluntary and democratic association of human beings, based on equality
of control, opportunity, distribution and mutuality for the promotion of their common interests as producers or consumers
Show Answer

Q125) serves as an organizational instrument for the economically weaker
producers-farmers, artisans or workers and consumers for strengthening themselves and protecting themselves against the exploitation by the stronger.
Show Answer

Q126) The word literally means to work together or act together. Show Answer

Q127) The I.C.A appointed a Commission in to ascertain how far the
principles of the Rochdale as defined by I.C.A in 1937 are observed today and the reasons for any non-observance
Show Answer

Q128) is based on the principle of self interest, maximization of profits
and exploitation
Show Answer

Q129) Recently RBI came up guidelines to incorporate the Name of the Purchaser on the Face of the Demand Draft. These instructions are applicable on instruments issued on or after _____ ? Show Answer

Q130) Within how many working days, the customer has to notify the bank regarding the unauthorised transaction so that there is zero liability of customer? Show Answer

Q131) The Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) is related to citizens of which country? Show Answer

Q132) Consider the following statements regarding Ombudsman Scheme for NBFC:a) Section 45L of the RBI Act, 1934 confers powers on RBI to notify such scheme
b) NBFCs having customer interface, with assets size of one billion rupees or above are eligible to be covered under the scheme
c) The scheme is initially being introduced at the four metro centers
d) All NBFCs are covered under the scheme
Choose the correct answer from the following options:
Show Answer

Q133) Which among the following does not have Ombudsman office for NBFC? Show Answer

Q134) Under the Ombudsman scheme for NBFC, who is the appellate authority for handling the complaints Show Answer

Q135) Which among the following NBFC are not excluded from the Ombudsman scheme for NBFC? Show Answer

Q136) What is the maximum amount of award that can be passed by Ombudsman for NBFC? Show Answer

Q137) Under NBFC- Peer to Peer Lending Platform Directions, 2017 by RBI, what is the aggregate exposure limit of a single lender to all borrowers at any point of time, across all P2Ps? Show Answer

Q138) Under NBFC- Peer to Peer Lending Platform Directions, 2017 by RBI, what is the aggregate loan limit of a single borrower at any point of time, across all P2Ps? Show Answer

Q139) Capital market regulator is: Show Answer

Q140) Two sell orders enter into the system and are unmatched : 1) 200 shares @ Rs. 72.75 at time 10:30 a.m. which order will get a priority for getting executed. Show Answer

Q141) The Trading Members shall keep the dematerialized securities of Constituents in a separate beneficiary account distinct from the beneficiary account maintained for holding their own dematerialized securities. True or False? Show Answer

Q142) If a client buys shares worth Rs. 5,25,000 and sells shares worth Rs. 4,75,000 through a broker, then the maximum brokerage payable to broker is . Show Answer

Q143) Which of the following economic concepts is ‘categorised on the basis of current account or capital account or both? Show Answer

Q144) Mr. Shah has decided to deposit Rs. 300,000 in the bank annually. If the bank has a policy of continuous compounding and the prevailing interest rate is 12% how much would his deposit grow upto in 3 years? Show Answer

Q145) What does ‘AUI’ indicate as a message code in ‘Full Message window’ in the NEAT system? Show Answer

Q146) Institutional transactions are identified by the use of the at the time of order entry. Show Answer

Q147) A user can simultaneously view a regular inquiry (e.g. MBP) and the Snap Quote display on the trading screen. True or False? Show Answer

Q148) A company has ................ Show Answer

Q149) Shareholders are Show Answer

Q150) Who are the real owners of a company? Show Answer

Q151) A Company is created by Show Answer

Q152) An artificial person created by Law is called : Show Answer

Q153) The liability of members in a Company is : Show Answer

Q154) Liability of a shareholder is limited to ................ of the shares allotted to him: Show Answer

Q155) Maximum number of members in a private company is : Show Answer

Q156) Capital of a Company is divided in units which is called : Show Answer

Q157) Shareholders receive from the company : Show Answer

Q158) .............. means buying the control of a sick company Show Answer

Q159) Venture capital organized in . Show Answer

Q160) Financing sick unit to make them profitable is called ________ Show Answer

Q161) The purpose of valuation is to assess the -------------- & viability of the venture & to device of the percentage of the VCF ownership in the new venture Show Answer

Q162) ..........is used to estimate the value of venture capital investment Show Answer

Q163) The purpose of valuation is to assess the profitability &-----------of the venture Show Answer

Q164) ............... types of valuation method can be adopted by VCFs Show Answer

Q165) In method the starting time & exit time of the venture investment is only considered Show Answer

Q166) In the method the entire earnings stream of the venture investment is considered Show Answer

Q167) The is used to estimate the annual revenue of the new company. Show Answer

Q168) js an interest free loan provided by VCFs without any predetermined repayment schedule. Show Answer

Q169) form of loan financing carries lower interest rates initially & increases when the assisted venture units become commercially operational. Show Answer

Q170) .............. are instruments which carry a lower interest rate plus a royalty on sales Show Answer

Q171) .............. is a combination of conventional and conditional loans Show Answer

Q172) The venture capital process involves post investment Services is also called . Show Answer

Q173) In nurturing the VCFs play only a passive role in the affairs of the venture. Show Answer

Q174) ............... is known as promoters buy back Show Answer

Q175) is a forced exit option results from a failed venture investment Show Answer

Q176) VCFs can be structured as an investment trust under the Indian act . Show Answer

Q177) partner whose liability is unlimited Show Answer

Q178) There are VCFs registered with SEBL Show Answer

Q179) IDBI venture capital fund was starts in . Show Answer

Q180) was setup in 1989 Show Answer

Q181) The first nationalized bank in India to start a VCF Show Answer

Q182) .-------- of the venture capital fund created by government and operated through IDBI. Show Answer

Q183) is oldest private sector venture fund in India. Show Answer

Q184) SIDBI venture capital scheme started operation in . Show Answer

Q185) Software fund is the first dedicated fund for software industry setup in Show Answer

Q186) ._______ is established to provide mezzanine finance to mid-cap companies in the knowledge based sector. Show Answer

Q187) The first bank to set up a separate merchant banking division in India Show Answer

Q188) The first Indian commercial bank to set up a merchant banking division in 1972. Show Answer

Q189) Which of the following is not a fee-based financial service? Show Answer

Q190) Which of the following is not a fund based financial services Show Answer

Q191) AII merchant bankers must have minimum net worth of . Show Answer

Q192) Find out odd one- Authorization criteria of merchant bankers Show Answer

Q193) Financial intermediaries provide services on the basis of non-fund activities, also called Show Answer

Q194) .---------- covers the entire range of services provided by a merchant banker. Show Answer

Q195) Functions of financial services exclude Show Answer

Q196) Financial service companies exclude . Show Answer

Q197) Specialized financial institution, are also known as . Show Answer

Q198) Financial services offered financing risk project e.g. Risk capital scheme of I F C I venture capital fund of I D F I etc. to provide Show Answer

Q199) Identify odd one Show Answer

Q200) In hire purchase system, each installment is treated as till the last installment is paid. Show Answer

Q201) Fee based activity includes . Show Answer

Q202) Asset based service also called . Show Answer

Q203) Non fund based activities also called . Show Answer

Q204) Modern activities exclude. Show Answer

Q205) includes all asset based financing plans offered to individuals to help them acquire durable consumer goods Show Answer

Q206) Functions of a factor exclude Show Answer

Q207) the Factor assume credit risk associated with the ----------- Show Answer

Q208) is the charge for short term financing in the form of advance part payment is in the form of interest charge for the period of advance payment. Show Answer

Q209) Who is the chairman of high powered committee constituted by the R B I under factoring services Show Answer

Q210) The minimum under writing obligation of a load merchant banker is of the total underwriting
commitment.
Show Answer

Q211) The maximum number of lead merchant bankers that can be appointed in the case the issue exceeds Rs.100crore less than Rs.200crore is . Show Answer

Q212) Category 1 merchant bankers can act as Show Answer

Q213) Merchant bankers are Show Answer

Q214) Merchant banker shall not associate with any business other than that of the securities market. Show Answer

Q215) All type of activities which are of a financial nature are called Show Answer

Q216) Find out odd one Show Answer

Q217) The number of lead merchant bankers may not exceeds in case any issue of , issue size less than Rs.50crore,number of MBs Show Answer

Q218) R O C stands for Show Answer

Q219) iS a written consent or authorization representing or acting on Denair or an individual in matters or business, private affairs or other legal matters. Show Answer

Q220) Lead merchant banker should advice the issuer to enter into with a particular intermediary for the purpose of issue management Show Answer

Q221) The number of lead merchant bankers may not exceed in case any issue of, issue size 200crore to 400crore Show Answer

Q222) Post issue management activities include:- Show Answer

Q223) Pre-issue management activities include:- Show Answer

Q224) A merchant bank can help an organization specifically in promotional functions, . Show Answer

Q225) Role of merchant bankers Show Answer

Q226) __________is a financial intermediary who helps to mobilize and transfer capital from those who possess it to those who need it. Show Answer

Q227) is a method of renting assets. Show Answer

Q228) is a long term risk capital to finance high technology projects which involve risk but at same time has strong potential for growth. Show Answer

Q229) _________is the opinion of the rating agency on the relative ability and willingness of the issuer of deby instrument to meet the debt service obligations as and when they arise. Show Answer

Q230) The features of hire purchase Show Answer

Q231) discounting of the bill of exchange is an attractive ---------------based financial service provided by the finance companies Show Answer

Q232) Factoring is method of raising finance through account receivable credit offered by commercial banks and factors Show Answer

Q233) Insurance is a Show Answer

Q234) is a fund based financial service, provides resources of finance receivable as well as facilities the collection of receivables Show Answer

Q235) is a service offered by a stock broker ie; buying and selling or dealing in shares on behalf of the customers Show Answer

Q236) Which is prohibited for writing on currency notes? Show Answer

Q237) PPF means Show Answer

Q238) Highest denomination of currency notes issued by RBI is Show Answer

Q239) NRI means Show Answer

Q240) PAN means Show Answer

Q241) Who is the present Chairman of State Bank of India? Show Answer

Q242) Bank provides loans for Show Answer

Q243) Which currency note has security thread? Show Answer

Q244) The safest place for keeping money Show Answer

Q245) Gold and silver ornaments should be kept in bank lockers Show Answer

Q246) Currency notes are issued by Show Answer

Q247) Coins are issued by Show Answer

Q248) Bank Pass Book is Show Answer

Q249) Banks pays interest on Show Answer

Q250) Bank charges interest on Show Answer

Q251) Education Loans Show Answer

Q252) Business Correspondent means Show Answer

Q253) Internet banking refers to Show Answer

Q254) Nomination once done can Show Answer

Q255) Who can open bank account? Show Answer

Q256) TDS means Show Answer

Q257) Maximum amount of Cheque Show Answer

Q258) Bank draft is issued by Show Answer

Q259) Self Help Group involves Show Answer

Q260) Payment of cheque can be stopped by Show Answer

Q261) Account payee cheques can be paid Show Answer

Q262) In Recurring Deposits Show Answer

Q263) While making nomination, signature of nominee is required on Show Answer

Q264) Interest on Savings Bank Deposits is paid Show Answer

Q265) Mutilated notes Show Answer

Q266) ATM can be used for Show Answer

Q267) Upon detection of a counterfeit note at the counter, Bank Show Answer

Q268) Fixed Deposit can Show Answer

Q269) Interest on FDRs is compounded on Show Answer

Q270) Contents of locker are Show Answer

Q271) If locker rent is not paid, Bank can Show Answer

Q272) MGNREGS stands for Show Answer

Q273) Maximum tenure of Fixed Deposit is Show Answer

Q274) Domestic debit card Show Answer

Q275) To whom Overdraft facility of Rs.5,000/- in PMJDY Account is available? Show Answer

Q276) What is Direct Benefit Transfer? Show Answer

Q277) What is meant by Aadhaar seeding? Show Answer

Q278) What are the benefits attached to PMJDY? Show Answer

Q279) Who can open an account under PMJDY? Show Answer

Q280) Who is Bank Mitra? Show Answer

Q281) What is the maximum amount of deposits acceptable in Small accounts? Show Answer

Q282) What kinds of services are available free in 'Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account'? Show Answer

Q283) What is the minimum deposit required while opening a BSBD Account? Show Answer

Q284) What is Atal Pension Yojana (APY)? Show Answer

Q285) What is Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY)? Show Answer

Q286) What is Pradhan Mantri Jivan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY)? Show Answer

Q287) Which type of deposits earns higher interest rate? Show Answer

Q288) Under PMSBY, accidental death claim is available for: Show Answer

Q289) What is validity period of cheque? Show Answer

Q290) Can illiterate person be issued Debit card? Show Answer

Q291) Under APY, fixed pension can be chosen from: Show Answer

Q292) PMJDY LIC Insurance of Rs.30,000/- is available for first time accounts opened Show Answer

Q293) are not covered under
PMJDY Life Insurance Scheme of Rs.30,000/-
Show Answer

Q294) South Indian Bank has its headquarter in which state? Show Answer

Q295) Which of the following banks has its headquarters in Tamil Nadu? Show Answer

Q296) Which of the following banks is ready to acquire Micro finance Grama Vidiyal? Show Answer

Q297) The newest private sector bank, Bandhan Bank has announced that it targets 180 new branches by March 2017. Who is the MD and CEO of Bandhan Bank? Show Answer

Q298) Which is the first bank in India to integrate the Masterpass QR Mobile Payment solution? Show Answer

Q299) Which bank has become the first private sector bank to sell Indian gold coins? Show Answer

Q300) Which private bank was earlier known as The Kumbakonam Bank Limited? Show Answer

Q301) Which Private bank is the wholly owned subsidiary of Bank of Baroda? Show Answer

Q302) Yes Bank in August 2016 rolled out which facility under its ‘Yes We Care’ initiative? Show Answer

Q303) Name the mobile banking app of Kotak Mahindra Bank (KMB) launched primarily for “un-banked” regions? Show Answer

Q304) The Hinduja Group, headquartered at London, UK owns the IndusInd Bank in India. Where are the headquarters of IndusInd bank? Show Answer

Q305) Which of the following banks has teamed up with Apollo to set up Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC)? Show Answer

Q306) Which one of the following is controlled by the World Wide Web? Show Answer

Q307) Who has been named as the best banking CEO in Asia by the All-Asia Executive Team rankings 2016? Show Answer

Q308) Among the following banks, which bank has been renamed as Axis Bank Ltd? Show Answer

Q309) Oudh Commercial Bank was founded in _______. Show Answer

Q310) Which was the second bank in India with limited liability? Show Answer

Q311) Punjab National Bank was established in ________. Show Answer

Q312) Which movement encouraged the formation of commercial banks? Show Answer

Q313) When did the banking crisis of 1913-1917 end? Show Answer

Q314) When the statutory7 potvers was given to Securities and Exchange Board of India Show Answer

Q315) Where the headquarters of SEBI is located Show Answer

Q316) In 2013 Union budget of India, in which category highest amount of money is allocated Show Answer

Q317) Which one is the largest source of revenue for the Indian Government Show Answer

Q318) When the Value Added Tax was first introduce in India Show Answer

Q319) Devaluation of currency leads to ? Show Answer

Q320) Sales Tax is Show Answer

Q321) Which five year plan is also known as "Gadgil Yojana" ? Show Answer

Q322) When community development programme (CDP) started ? Show Answer

Q323) India is the largest milk producing country in the world . Show Answer

Q324) The main office of Regional Office for Asia and the Pacific of ICA is
at
Show Answer

Q325) Expand CCW Show Answer

Q326) Expand ICAO Show Answer

Q327) The Cooperative Credit Societies Act was passed in Show Answer

Q328) The Cooperative Societies Act was passed in Show Answer

Q329) The Reserve Bank of India was established in Show Answer

Q330) In the five year plan the Central Committee for Cooperative
Training was established
Show Answer

Q331) In the National Cooperative Development Corporation(NCDC) was
established for strengthening the cooperative activities.
Show Answer

Q332) Expand NCDC Show Answer

Q333) In the five year plan the All India Rural Credit Review
Committee was set up.
Show Answer

Q334) In 1970 the Reserve bank of India set up the for the review of
rural credit system
Show Answer

Q335) The Committee constituted to Review the Arrangements for
Institutional Credit for Agriculture and Rural Development in 1981, recommended the establishment of NABARD
Show Answer

Q336) The Sivaraman Committee constituted to Review the Arrangements for
Institutional Credit for Agriculture and Rural Development in 1981, recommended the establishment of
Show Answer

Q337) The Sivaraman Committee was constituted in the five year plan and it
recommended the establishment of NABARD.
Show Answer

Q338) The committee was appointed by the Planning Commission of
India to prepare a Model Cooperative Bill.
Show Answer

Q339) In India cooperative legislation started in Show Answer

Q340) The shortcomings in the Act of 1904 was removed by another legislation known
as
Show Answer

Q341) The committee,1945 observed that the Act of 1912 needed revision in certain respects and recommended that the provinces in which the cooperative societies act of 1912 was in force should pass special acts keeping in view their past experience and the future needs of the movement. Show Answer

Q342) The report submitted by the consisted of two volumes: the
first contained Model Cooperative Societies Bill and Rules and the second volume contained model bye-laws for various types of societies.
Show Answer

Q343) A novel form of cooperative organization known as Producer Company was introduced by amending the Show Answer

Q344) NCUI is Show Answer

Q345) PACS is Show Answer

Q346) LAMPS stands for Show Answer

Q347) DCCBs stands for Show Answer

Q348) SCARDBs stands for Show Answer

Q349) SCBs stand for Show Answer

Q350) NAFED stands for Show Answer

Q351) The Established in 1958 has been playing an important role in
the development of cooperative marketing in India.
Show Answer

Q352) The National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation established in has been playing an important role in the development of cooperative marketing in India. Show Answer

Q353) The first marketing cooperative was organized at In the former Bombay
province in 1915
Show Answer

Q354) The first marketing cooperative was organized at Hubli in the former Bombay
province in
Show Answer

Q355) The National Cooperative Consumers’ Federation was established during the Plan. Show Answer

Q356) DCCWSs stands for Show Answer

Q357) NCHF stands for Show Answer

Q358) The Urban cooperative banks, salary earners’ societies, thrift and credit societies are examples of Show Answer

Q359) The implemented the “Operation Flood Programme Show Answer

Q360) LAMPS, TDCCFs, BISCOLAMF, TRIFED are cooperatives working for the
upliftment of
Show Answer

Q361) The Jute industry is one of the major industries in Show Answer

Q362) The first Diary Cooperative Society was registered in 1913 at Show Answer

Q363) The first Diary Cooperative Society was registered in 1913 at Allahabad in UP
was called
Show Answer

Q364) The Kaira District Cooperative Milk Producers Union at Anand was formed in Show Answer

Q365) The Kaira District Cooperative Milk Producers Union was formed in 1946
at
Show Answer

Q366) . The products of is popularly known by the brand name
‘Amul’.
Show Answer

Q367) Operation Flood Programme is related to organizing throughout the
country.
Show Answer

Q368) The Operation Flood progamme was started on Show Answer

Q369) Robert Owen, Dr. William King, Lougi Luzzatti, Louis Blanc are examples of some of the Show Answer

Q370) The process of concentration of cooperative activities at the primary level either
by the amalgamation of two or more societies carrying out the same business or by the incorporation of several functions in one society is known as
Show Answer

Q371) Two or more single-purpose societies working closely together without losing their identity is called Show Answer

Q372) The Kerala State Handloom Weavers Co Operative Society Ltd is known by the
sobriquet was formed in the beginning of 1961 for the Weavers in the Co¬
Operative Sector of Kerala
Show Answer

Q373) The , the Apex Federation of Co-operative
Societies engaged in the manufacture of coir and coir products is entrusted with the task of marketing the product of the Co-operative Societies
Show Answer

Q374) is instrumental in implementing the novel schemes of Govt. of
Kerala like Distress purchase scheme, Fibre subsidy scheme, Price fluctuation fund, Purchase price stabilization scheme etc
Show Answer

Q375) Cocofert, Cocoplus, Cocogeo fabric, Dustout and Deepsleepare the brand names of products of Show Answer

Q376) MATSYAFED refers to Show Answer

Q377) The is the apex federation of the consumer cooperatives in
India.
Show Answer

Q378) NCCF was set up on and is administered under the Multi
State Cooperative Societies Act 2002
Show Answer

Q379) NCCF was set up on 16 October, 1965 and is administered under the Show Answer

Q380) is the apex institution for financing housing through the Primary
Housing Co-operatives (PHCs) in Kerala State.
Show Answer

Q381) The KSCHF was registered on Show Answer

Q382) The was established in 1969 as an apex organization for
coordinating, guiding and promoting cooperative housing activities in India.
Show Answer

Q383) The Kerala State Handloom Weavers Co Operative Society Ltd. “Hantex” was
formed in the beginning of for the Weavers in the Co-Operative Sector of
Kerala.
Show Answer

Q384) The National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation (NAFED),
established in
Show Answer

Q385) National Co- operative Development Corporation (NCDC) was setup in Show Answer

Q386) National Co- operative Development Corporation (NCDC) was setup in 1963 by
the Central Government by passing
Show Answer

Q387) The was setup in 1963 by the Central Government
by passing NCDC Act in 1962
Show Answer

Q388) The creation of in 1965 was a major step towards
the organisation of dairying on cooperative lines.
Show Answer

Q389) The creation of National Dairy Development Board (NDDB)in was a
major step towards the organisation of dairying on cooperative lines.
Show Answer

Q390) In 1969-70 NDDB introduced a scheme for the development of dairy co¬operatives known as Show Answer

Q391) The first marketing cooperative was organized at in the former Bombay
Province in 1915
Show Answer

Q392) The first marketing cooperative was organized at Hubli in the former Bombay
Province in
Show Answer

Q393) When Agro processing companies enter into contract with the farmers to provide
the farmers with the inputs like fertilizers, seeds, pesticides and guidelines to grow crops and buy back the products with a rate specified in advance, it is known as
Show Answer

Q394) The well-known sobriquet ‘MILMA’ refers to Show Answer

Q395) Kerala Co-operative Milk Marketing Federation (KCMMF), popularly called
‘MILMA’ was established in
Show Answer

Q396) The farmer-owned Co-operative Model with is integrated approach to
production, procurement, Processing and Marketing of milk came to be known as
Show Answer

Q397) The Registered Office of NAFCUB is at and the area of operation
is whole of the country
Show Answer

Q398) The was set up in 1960 & is administered under the
Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002.
Show Answer

Q399) The number of SCARDBs in India as on 31st March 2013 is Show Answer

Q400) The number of PCARDBsin India as on 31st March 2013 is Show Answer

Q401) The number Branches of PCARDBs in India as on 31st March 2013
is
Show Answer

Q402) The National Co-operative Agriculture & Rural Development Banks’ Federation
was registered on
with the main objective of promoting the
interests of the Long Term Co-operative Credit Structure (LTCCS) movement in the country
Show Answer

Q403) The term “cooperative farming” is collective farming. Show Answer

Q404) In India, the first cooperative land mortgage bank was established in 1920
at
Show Answer

Q405) It was from the beginning of the that the policies oriented
towards development purposes were adopted and land mortgage banks were called “Land Development Banks”.
Show Answer

Q406) The are organized in 3 tiers namely; state, central, and
primary level and they meet the long term credit requirements of the farmers for developmental purposes.
Show Answer

Q407) are now known as Cooperative Agriculture and Rural
Development Banks
Show Answer

Q408) The origins of the urban co-operative banking movement in India can be traced
to the close of
Show Answer

Q409) Committee to Review Arrangements For Institutional Credit for Agricultural and
Rural Development, under the chairmanship of Sri B Sivaraman recommended the establishment of
Show Answer

Q410) At Ajmer in Rajasthan the first DCB was established in Show Answer

Q411) The first DCB was established at in 1910. Show Answer

Q412) The first DCB was established at in 1910. Show Answer

Q413) is the vertex of the pyramidal structure in a State for the
provision of short and medium term credit to agriculturists on cooperative basis.
Show Answer

Q414) A also acts as a balancing center and clearing house for the
central cooperative banks.
Show Answer

Q415) is the birth-place of land mortgage banking Show Answer

Q416) Germany is the birth-place of Show Answer

Q417) In India, the first cooperative land mortgage bank was established in
at Jhang in Punjab
Show Answer

Q418) The Urban Credit Cooperatives are also commonly known as Show Answer

Q419) The cooperative credit institutions in the country may be broadly classified into.. Show Answer

Q420) With regard to short-term credit cooperatives, at the central level
act as a link between primary societies and State Cooperative Apex Banks.
Show Answer

Q421) The controls the cooperative banks that falls under the
banking regulation act of 1949
Show Answer

Q422) NCCT stands for Show Answer

Q423) NCCT was recommended by Show Answer

Q424) VAMNICOM stands for Show Answer

Q425) NCCE stands for Show Answer

Q426) The cooperator is a journal published by NCUI Show Answer

Q427) NCUI stands for Show Answer

Q428) Indian Cooperative Review is a of NCUI Show Answer

Q429) In India, Cooperative Week will be celebrated in the month of Show Answer

Q430) Co-operative movement originated first in Show Answer

Q431) One man one vote’ principle was recommended by ---------- Committee Show Answer

Q432) The members of a Co-operative Society have ------- liability Show Answer

Q433) Which of the following organizational structure is followed by Co-operatives in India? Show Answer

Q434) A novel form of cooperative organization known as Producer Company was introduced by amending the ………………….. Show Answer

Q435) PACS is Show Answer

Q436) DCCBs stands for Show Answer

Q437) NAFED stands for Show Answer

Q438) The ………………. Established in 1958 has been playing an important role in the development of cooperative marketing in India Show Answer

Q439) The National Cooperative Consumers’ Federation was established during the………Plan. Show Answer

Q440) DCCWSs stands for Show Answer

Q441) NCHF stands for Show Answer

Q442) The Jute industry is one of the major industries in …………… Show Answer

Q443) NCCT stands for……………… Show Answer

Q444) VAMNICOM stands for ………….. Show Answer

Q445) NCCE stands for………………. Show Answer

Q446) NCUI stands for ……………………. Show Answer

Q447) Apex Society means --------- level society Show Answer

Q448) The President of a Co-operative Society is Show Answer

Q449) Interest Rate of Deposits of a Co-operative Credit Societies are fixed by Show Answer

Q450) The Rules and Regulations of a Co-operative Society is formed in its Show Answer

Q451) The Co-operative Societies Act was passed in India in the year Show Answer

Q452) The word literally means to work together or act together. Show Answer

Q453) The I.C.A appointed a Commission in ………………….. to ascertain how far the principles of the Rochdale as defined by I.C.A in 1937 are observed today and the reasons for any non-observance. Show Answer

Q454) The first Diary Cooperative Society was registered in 1913 at Allahabad in UP was called…………….. Show Answer

Q455) The Kaira District Cooperative Milk Producers Union at Anand was formed in……… Show Answer

Q456) The products of …………………….. is popularly known by the brand name ‘Amul’. Show Answer

Q457) Operation Flood Programme is related to organizing …………..throughout the country. Show Answer

Q458) Robert Owen, Dr. William King, Lougi Luzzatti, Louis Blanc are examples of some of the Show Answer

Q459) The process of concentration of cooperative activities at the primary level either by the amalgamation of two or more societies carrying out the same business or by the incorporation of several functions in one society is known as……………. Show Answer

Q460) Two or more single-purpose societies working closely together without losing their identity is called Show Answer

Q461) The………………………………………, the Apex Federation of Co-operative Societies engaged in the manufacture of coir and coir products is entrusted with the task of marketing the product of the Co-operative Societies Show Answer

Q462) Cocofert, Cocoplus, Cocogeo fabric, Dustout and Deepsleepare the brand names of products of Show Answer

Q463) The ……………………..is the apex federation of the consumer cooperatives in India. Show Answer

Q464) NCCF was set up on and is administered under the Multi State Cooperative Societies Act 2002 Show Answer

Q465) NCCF was set up on 16 October, 1965 and is administered under the ………….. Show Answer

Q466) The was established in 1969 as an apex organization for coordinating, guiding and promoting cooperative housing activities in India. Show Answer

Q467) The National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation (NAFED), established in …… Show Answer

Q468) National Co- operative Development Corporation (NCDC) was setup in 1963 by the Central Government by passing ……………….. Show Answer

Q469) The …………………………… was setup in 1963 by the Central Government by passing NCDC Act in 1962 Show Answer

Q470) The creation of ……………………………. in 1965 was a major step towards the organisation of dairying on cooperative lines. Show Answer

Q471) In 1969-70 NDDB introduced a scheme for the development of dairy co- operatives known as .. … Show Answer

Q472) When Agro processing companies enter into contract with the farmers to provide the farmers with the inputs like fertilizers, seeds, pesticides and guidelines to grow crops and buy back the products with a rate specified in advance, it is known as……….. Show Answer

Q473) The farmer-owned Co-operative Model with is integrated approach to production, procurement, Processing and Marketing of milk came to be known as…….. Show Answer

Q474) The was set up in 1960 & is administered under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002. Show Answer

Q475) The National Co-operative Agriculture & Rural Development Banks’ Federation was registered on ………………………..with the main objective of promoting the interests of the Long Term Co-operative Credit Structure (LTCCS) movement in the country Show Answer

Q476) In India, the first cooperative land mortgage bank was established in 1920 at………….. Show Answer

Q477) The ………………………. are organized in 3 tiers namely; state, central, and primary level and they meet the long term credit requirements of the farmers for developmental purposes. Show Answer

Q478) The origins of the urban co-operative banking movement in India can be traced to the close of ……………………….. Show Answer

Q479) Committee to Review Arrangements For Institutional Credit for Agricultural and Rural Development, under the chairmanship of Sri B Sivaraman recommended the establishment of ……………………… Show Answer

Q480) The first DCB was established at.....in 1910 Show Answer

Q481) ……………………..is the vertex of the pyramidal structure in a State for the provision of short and medium term credit to agriculturists on cooperative basis. Show Answer

Q482) A …………………. also acts as a balancing center and clearing house for the central cooperative banks Show Answer

Q483) The Urban Credit Cooperatives are also commonly known as ………………. Show Answer

Q484) The cooperative credit institutions in the country may be broadly classified into.. Show Answer

Q485) With regard to short-term credit cooperatives, at the central level……………………….. act as a link between primary societies and State Cooperative Apex Banks. Show Answer

Q486) The ……………………… controls the cooperative banks that falls under the banking regulation act of 1949. Show Answer

Q487) Co-operative movement originated first in Show Answer

Q488) The Co-operative Societies Act was passed in India in the year Show Answer

Q489) One man one vote’ principle was recommended by Committee Show Answer

Q490) Apex Society means level society Show Answer

Q491) The members of a Co-operative Society have liability Show Answer

Q492) The President of a Co-operative Society is Show Answer

Q493) Which of the following organizational structure is followed by Co-operatives in India? Show Answer

Q494) Interest Rate of Deposits of a Co-operative Credit Societies are fixed by Show Answer

Q495) The Rules and Regulations of a Co-operative Society is formed in its Show Answer

Q496) Co-operation is included in the schedule of Indian Constitution Show Answer

Q497) The first Indian RRB that achieved Core Banking Solution (CBS) in 2011 is ________? Show Answer

Q498) Co-operative banks are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India under which act? Show Answer

Q499) Co-operative banks which work at a metropolitan level are called as? Show Answer

Q500) Which one of the apex bodies regulates the cooperative banks in India? Show Answer

Q501) Earliest known cooperative credit union ‘Anyonya Sahakari Mandali’ was founded in which year? Show Answer

Q502) All banks registered under the ___________ are considered co-operative banks. Show Answer

Q503) Which bank has secured four awards for inclusive insurance in 2016 from Skoch Group? Show Answer

Q504) Which of the following Grameen Bank has launched “Bank Sakhi” scheme to promote and popularize cashless transactions in rural areas? Show Answer

Q505) Recently RBI came up guidelines to incorporate the Name of the Purchaser on the Face of the Demand Draft. These instructions are applicable on instruments issued on or after _____ ? Show Answer

Q506) Within how many working days, the customer has to notify the bank regarding the unauthorised transaction so that there is zero liability of customer? Show Answer

Q507) The Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) is related to citizens of which country? Show Answer

Q508) Consider the following statements regarding Ombudsman Scheme for NBFC:
a) Section 45L of the RBI Act, 1934 confers powers on RBI to notify such scheme
b) NBFCs having customer interface, with assets size of one billion rupees or above are eligible to be covered under the scheme
c) The scheme is initially being introduced at the four metro centers
d) All NBFCs are covered under the scheme
Choose the correct answer from the following options:
Show Answer

Q509) Which among the following does not have Ombudsman office for NBFC? Show Answer

Q510) Under the Ombudsman scheme for NBFC, who is the appellate authority for handling the complaints? Show Answer

Q511) Which among the following NBFC are not excluded from the Ombudsman scheme for NBFC? Show Answer

Q512) What is the maximum amount of award that can be passed by Ombudsman for NBFC? Show Answer

Q513) Under NBFC- Peer to Peer Lending Platform Directions, 2017 by RBI, what is the aggregate exposure limit of a single lender to all borrowers at any point of time, across all P2Ps? Show Answer

Q514) Under NBFC- Peer to Peer Lending Platform Directions, 2017 by RBI, what is the aggregate loan limit of a single borrower at any point of time, across all P2Ps? Show Answer

Q515) Which agency regulates and supervises NBFCs? Show Answer

Q516) Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. NBFCs does not hold a banking license.
2. NBFC can issue Demand Drafts like banks.
Show Answer

Q517) Which of the above statements is/are correct? Show Answer

Q518) A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under _____ Show Answer

Q519) Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) engaged in the business of _____ Show Answer

Q520) Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) does not include _____ Show Answer

Q521) Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation(DICGC) is not available to depositors of _____ Show Answer

Q522) Which of the following can not accept Demand Deposit? Show Answer

Q523) Which of the following do not form part of the payment and settlement system? Show Answer

Q524) NBFC should be a company registered under _____ of the companies Act, 1956. Show Answer

Q525) NBFCs should have a minimum net owned fund of _____ Show Answer

Q526) NBFCs whose asset size is of _____ or more as per last audited balance sheet are considered as systemically important NBFCs Show Answer

Q527) NBFCs which deploys at least 75 per cent of its total assets in infrastructure loans is known as _____ Show Answer

Q528) A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the _____. Show Answer

Q529) For a company to register as a NBFC it should have a minimum net owned fund of _____. Show Answer

Q530) Any NBFC is is considered systemically important NBFC when its asset size is of Rs _____ or more. Show Answer

Q531) Which of the following is true about NBFC?
(i) NBFC cannot accept demand deposits
(ii) NBFCs cannot issue cheques drawn on itself
(iii) deposit insurance facility of DICGC is not available to depositors of NBFCs.
Show Answer

Q532) NBFCs are required to accept public deposit for a minimum period of months? Show Answer

Q533) NBFCs are required to accept public deposit for a ma9ximum period of months? Show Answer

Q534) What is the present ceiling limit of interest rate that NBFCs can offer ? Show Answer

Q535) Identify the false statement Show Answer

Q536) For working as a NBFC a company must get itself registers with _____. Show Answer

Q537) Chit Fund companies are regulated under the Chit Fund Act, _____. Show Answer

Q538) A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the _______ Show Answer

Q539) Which of the following activity is not permissible for NBFC? Show Answer

Q540) A non-banking institution that has a principal business of receiving deposits under any scheme or arrangement in one lump sum or in installments by way of contributions is known as? Show Answer

Q541) When is an Financial activity considered as the principal business of any entity? Show Answer

Q542) Which of the following test is used by RBI to determine whether or not a company is into financial business Show Answer

Q543) Which of the following is false about NBFC? Show Answer

Q544) What is the minimum Net Owned Funds required by NBFCs for registration with RBI? Show Answer

Q545) NBFCs with asset size more than ___ are considered to be systemically important NBFCs Show Answer

Q546) Core Investment Companies with asset size of less than _______ are exempted from registration with RBI. Show Answer

Q547) Which of the following does not have any roles in regulation of NBFCs? Show Answer

Q548) Reserve Capital is a part of: Show Answer

Q549) Which of the following statements is true? Show Answer

Q550) Authorised Capital of a Company is mentioned in : Show Answer

Q551) In case of private placement of shares, the lock in period is : Show Answer

Q552) In case of private placement of shares and company does not invite the general public for subscription of shares in that case, company instead of issuing prospectus : Show Answer

Q553) In case of private placement of shares, to raise the amount of capital a company : Show Answer

Q554) Shares issued by a company to its employees or directors in consideration of ‘Intellectual Property Rights’ are called Show Answer

Q555) A Company may issue the shares Show Answer

Q556) Public subscription of shares include Show Answer

Q557) Which of the following will define, when appropriation of a certain number of shares is made to an applicant in response to his application? Show Answer

Q558) Issue of shares at a price lower than its face value is called : Show Answer

Q559) According to Companies Act, Minimum Subscription has been fixed at ................ of the issued amount. Show Answer

Q560) One of the conditions, in addition to others, for allotment of shares is : Show Answer

Q561) Persons who start a company are called ................ Show Answer

Q562) Minimum subscription amount of 90% is related to which share capital: Show Answer

Q563) Share Application Account is in the nature of: Show Answer

Q564) As per SEBI Guidelines, Application money should not be less than of the issue price of each share. Show Answer

Q565) 4,000 Equity Shares of Rs. 10 each were issued at 8% premium to the promoters of a company for their services. Which account will be debited? Show Answer

Q566) If vendors are issued fully paid shares of Rs. 1,25,000 in consideration of net assets of Rs. 1,50,000, the balance of Rs.25,000 will be credited to : Show Answer

Q567) Issue of shares at a price higher than its face value is called : Show Answer

Q568) On issue of shares Premium is : Show Answer

Q569) Maximum limit of Premium on shares is: Show Answer

Q570) When a company issues shares at a premium, the amount of premium should be received by the company : Show Answer

Q571) Amount of securities premium can be utilised for: Show Answer

Q572) For what purpose securities premium reserve account cannot be utilized? Show Answer

Q573) Premium on the issue of shares should be shown : Show Answer

Q574) Which of the following section of the Companies Act, 2013 prohibits to issue of shares at discount? Show Answer

Q575) Equity shareholder is - Show Answer

Q576) have the right to vote on any resolution placed before the company or general meeting. Show Answer

Q577) Amount of capital stated in the Memorandum of Association as the share capital of the company is known as (1) Subscribed or Authorized Capital
(2) Paid-up or Subscribed Capital
(3) Nominal or Called-up Capital
(4) Nominal or Authorized Capital
The correct answer is
Show Answer

Q578) __________ refers to that part of the authorized capital which has actually been offered to the public for subscription Show Answer

Q579) ….. refers to that part of the issued capital which has actually been subscribed by the public. Show Answer

Q580) Public companies issue shares to public through document called - Show Answer

Q581) __________ means the appropriation of a certain number of shares to an applicant who has applied shares in public issue by the board of directors in consultation with stock exchange. Show Answer

Q582) Issuer company cannot make allotment of shares unless - Show Answer

Q583) The minimum subscription is the
of the issued amount.
Show Answer

Q584) When face value of shares is less than issue price then shares are said to be issued at - Show Answer

Q585) When shares are issued at a price less than the face value, they are said to be issued at - Show Answer

Q586) As per the Companies Act, 2013 the companies cannot use the balance of securities premium for - Show Answer

Q587) When shares are not payable in a lump sum, second instalment is called - Show Answer

Q588) When shares are not payable in a lump sum, third instalment is called - Show Answer

Q589) Premium on issue of shares must be treated as - Show Answer

Q590) Premium on issue of shares must be credited to a separate account called - Show Answer

Q591) Securities premium account must be shown separately on the liabilities side of the balance sheet in ….. under the heading ….. Show Answer

Q592) Which of the following type of security can be issued al discount as per Companies Act, 2013?1) Equity Shares
(2) Sweat Equity Shares
(3) Preference Shares
(4) Debentures
(5) Bonds
Select the correct answer from the options given below -
Show Answer

Q593) Which of the following Table of Schedule I to the Companies Act, 2013 contains the provisions relating to Calls- in-Advance & Calls-in-Arrears? Show Answer

Q594) Amount received as calls-in-advance is a _____ of the company. Show Answer

Q595) Amount due on calls made but not paid is known as - Show Answer

Q596) If the number of shares issued for is more than the number of shares applied the shares are said to be Show Answer

Q597) If the number of shares applied for is more than the number of shares issued the shares are said to be Show Answer

Q598) In case of oversubscription of shares each applicant receives the shares in some proportion, it is known as Show Answer

Q599) If authorized by the ….., a company may receive from a shareholder the amount remaining unpaid on shares, even though the amount has not been called up which is known as calls-in-advance. Show Answer

Q600) __________ paid on calls-in-advance. Show Answer

Q601) As per Table F of Schedule I of the Companies Act, 2013, interest on calls in advance can be paid at _____ p.a Show Answer

Q602) As per Table F of Schedule I to the Companies Act, 2013, interest on calls in arrear can be received at ….. p.a. Show Answer

Q603) Interest on calls-in-advance is paid for the period from the - Show Answer

Q604) Balance of interest on calls-in-arrear account is transferred to ….. at the end of the year. Show Answer

Q605) Balance of interest on calls-on-advance account is transferred to the ….. at the end of the year. Show Answer

Q606) A company may allot fully paid shares to promoters or any other party for the services rendered by them, share capital account is credited and ….. debited. Show Answer

Q607) ….. may be said to be the compulsory termination of membership by way of penalty for non-payment of allotment and/or any call money Show Answer

Q608) Which of the following security can be forfeited for non-payment of allotment or call money?
(I) Equity Shares
(II) Equity Shares, Preference Shares
(III) Preference Shares, Equity Shares & Debentures
(IV) Debentures
Select the correct answer from the options given below -
Show Answer

Q609) Which of the following security cannot be forfeited for non-payment of allotment or call money? Show Answer

Q610) Shares forfeited account is to be shown in the balance sheet by way of ….. to the paid up share capital on the liabilities side until the concerned shares are re-issued. Show Answer

Q611) The forfeited shares may be re-issued -
(I) at par only
(II) at par or at premium only
(III) at par or at discount only
(IV) at par or at premium or at discount
The correct answer is -
Show Answer

Q612) When shares are issued at a price less than the face value, they are said to be issued at - Show Answer

Q613) When shares are not payable in a lump sum, first instalment is called — Show Answer

Q614) When shares are not payable in a lump sum, second instalment is called — Show Answer

Q615) When shares are not payable in a lump sum, third instalment is called — Show Answer

Q616) When shares are not payable in a lump sum, fourth instalment is called — Show Answer

Q617) Preference shares are those which carry the preferential rights as to - Show Answer

Q618) __________ will be entitled to receive arrears of their dividend. Show Answer

Q619) Which of the following section of the Companies Act, 2013 prohibits to issue of shares at discount? Show Answer

Q620) Which of the following right may be given to preference shareholder if provided by Articles? Show Answer

Q621) Which of the following type of security can be issued at discount as per Companies Act, 2013?
(1) Equity Shares
(2) Sweat Equity Shares
(3) Preference Shares
(4) Debentures
(5) Bonds
Select the correct answer from the options given below -
Show Answer

Q622) Which of the following security can be forfeited for non-payment of allotment or call money?
(I) Equity Shares
(II) Equity Shares, Preference Shares
(III) Preference Shares, Equity Shares & Debentures
(IV) Debentures
Select the correct answer from the options given below
Show Answer

Q623) Dividends are of profits. Show Answer

Q624) A company limited by shares may, if authorized by its can issue preference shares which are or at the option of the company are liable to be redeemed Show Answer

Q625) The preference shares can be redeemed Show Answer

Q626) When preference shares are redeemed out of profits such profit must be - Show Answer

Q627) Only preferences shares can
be redeemed.
Show Answer

Q628) If any premium is to be payable on redemption of preference share, such premium has to be provided - Show Answer

Q629) Where preferences shares are redeemed out of profits, a sum equal to the nominal amount of the shares so redeemed must be transferred to - Show Answer

Q630) Capital Redemption Reserve Account may be applied to issue - Show Answer

Q631) No company limited by shares, issue any preference shares which is redeemable after the expiry of a period of _____ from the date of issue Show Answer

Q632) The balance in capital redemption reserve is available for - Show Answer

Q633) As per the Companies Act, 2013, preference shares which are issued by company engaged in infrastructure project can issue preference share which are redeemable after ____ Show Answer

Q634) A preference shares is one which enjoy a: Show Answer

Q635) Unless otherwise stated, a preference share is always deemed to be - Show Answer

Q636) As per the Companies Act, 2013 the companies cannot use the balance of Securities Premium for - Show Answer

Q637) Which of the following can be utilized in redemption of preference share capital account?
1. Profits available for dividend
2. Capital Reserve
3. Dividend Equalization Fund
4. Development Rebate Reserve
5. Profit Prior to Incorporation
Select the correct answer from the options given below -
Show Answer

Q638) Statement I:
The main purpose to create CRR is to keep the capital structure of the company variable.
Statement II:
Another purpose to create CRR is to protect the interest of creditors, since CRR cannot be utilized for payment of dividend.
Select the correct answer from the options given below -
Show Answer

Q639) To whom the bonus shares or rights shares can be issued? Show Answer

Q640) Preference shares are entitled to a - Show Answer

Q641) A preference shareholder can vote - Show Answer

Q642) Redeemable Preference shares can be redeemed out of _____ Show Answer

Q643) Which of the following is correct journal entry for the 'Amount due to preference shares on redemption'? Show Answer

Q644) A company used balance of ‘General Reserve’ and ‘P & L A/c’ for redemption of preference share capital amount. Which of the following is correct journal entry for this transaction? Show Answer

Q645) Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE with regard to redemption of Preference shares? Show Answer

Q646) When Redeemable Preference shares are due for redemption, the entry passed is Show Answer

Q647) Which of the following statements is FALSE? Show Answer

Q648) Which of the following cannot be used for the purpose of creation of capital redemption reserve account? Show Answer

Q649) According to section 52 of the Companies Act, 2013, the amount in the Securities Premium A/c cannot be used for the purpose of: Show Answer

Q650) Which of the following statements is TRUE? Show Answer

Q651) Which of the following statements is incorrect? Show Answer

Q652) Which of the following statements is correct? Show Answer

Q653) For which one or more of the following reasons could a balance in the share premium be applied?(a) To issue bonus shares.
(b) For distribution to shareholders as dividend.
(c) To write down the value of assets, particularly when they are impaired.
(d) To write off expenses of and com¬mission on issuing the same shares
Select the correct answer from the options given below -
Show Answer

Q654) For which one or more of the following reasons does company law attempt to protect the balance in the securities Premium account by specifying the reasons for which alone it may be applied?(a) It is part of the capital actually con¬tributed by the shareholders.
(b) It should be protected from erosion as part of the creditor’s buffer.
(c) It is not realized in cash.
(d) It is immoral to allow a company to make profit by trading on its own shares.
Select the correct answer from the options given below -
Show Answer

Q655) During the year a company used the balance it had in its securities premium account for all of the following purposes.
(a) Write off expenses of company for¬mation.
(b) Write off the cost of issuing bonus shares.
(c) Write off goodwill acquired when another business was bought as a going concern.
(d) Write off expenses of issuing shares.
Which one is not correct?
Show Answer

Q656) Where redeemable preference shares are redeemed out of divisible profits, an amount equivalents to the nominal value of the shares so redeemed must be transferred out of divisible profits to : Show Answer

Q657) When preference shares are redeemed out of divisible profits, a transfer to
capital Redemption Reserve can be made out of:
Show Answer

Q658) When preference shares are redeemed out of divisible profits, which amount is
transferred to Capital Redemption Reserve u/s 80:
Show Answer

Q659) Which of the following statement is correct? Show Answer

Q660) Irredeemable preference shares which were is sued by the company before the commencement of companies Amendment act 1988 must be redeemed within …….from th date of commencement of companies amendment act.1988. Show Answer

Q661) Redeemable preference shares are those shares on which capital is to be paid back. Show Answer

Q662) Which of these is not one of the conditions for redemption of redeeemable preference Show Answer

Q663) Divisible profit include(s). Show Answer

Q664) Divisible profit excludes Show Answer

Q665) Redeemable preference share can be redeemed out of. Show Answer

Q666) A preference share which carries the right of sharing in the surplus left after paying enquiry Dividend is called -- Show Answer

Q667) Which type of the following shares have the right to receive dividends unpaid in prior years, whenever earnings become adequate ? Show Answer

Q668) The companies Act ,1956 prohibits the issue of any preference share which is Show Answer

Q669) 5. Redeemable Preference shares are those shares on which Capital is to be paid back within Capital is to e paid back within the stipulated period of Show Answer

Q670) Which of the following cannot be used for the purpose of creation of capital
redemption reserve account?
Show Answer

Q671) Which of the following accounts can be transferred to Capital Redemption Reserve
account
Show Answer

Q672) According to section 78 of the companies act, the amount in the Securities
Premium A/c cannot be used for the purpose of
Show Answer

Q673) Preference shares can be redeemed out of: Show Answer

Q674) Which of the following statements is false? Show Answer

Q675) Rs. 1,00,000 equity shares of Rs. 10 each are issued at a discount of 10% to
redeem the preference shares, the proceeds of a fresh issue u/s 80 is
Show Answer

Q676) To redeem the preference shares, 1,00,000 equity shares of Rs. 10 each at RS. 11, Rs. 1,00,00010%. Pref. shares of RS. 10 each at RS. 9 and Rs. 1,00,000 9% Debentures of Rs. 100 each at Rs. 90 are issued the proceeds of fresh issue u/s 80 is —— Show Answer

Q677) To redeem 15% Pref. Shares of Rs. 1,00,000 at 5% premium, Rs. 10,000 12%. Debentures of Rs. 100 each are issued at a discount of 10%. The amount to be transferred to Capital Redemption Reserve is: Show Answer

Q678) X Ltd. decides to redeem 650, 15% Red. Pref. Shares of Rs. 100 each at a premium of 10% it has a General Reserve of RS. 70,000 and a Securities Premium of Rs. 4,000. If it is decided to redeem preference shares out of divisible profits, the amount required to be transferred to Capital Redemption Reserve Account is – Show Answer

Q679) X Ltd. decides to redeem 650, 15% Red. Pref. Shares of Rs. 100 each at a premium of 10%. It has General Reserve of Rs. 70,000 and a securities Premium of Rs. 4,000. If it is decided to issue 6,500 Equity Shares of Rs. 10 each at a premium of 5% for the purpose of redemption of Pref. Shares, the amount required to be transferred to capital Redemption Reserve account is — Show Answer

Q680) X Ltd. decides to redeem 650, 15% Red. Pref. Shares of Rs. 100 each at a premium of 10%. It has General Reserve of Rs. 70,000 and a securities Premium of Rs. 4,000. If it is decided to issue 6,500 Equity Shares of Rs. 10 each at a premium of 5% for the purpose of redemption of Pref. Shares, the amount required to be transferred to capital Redemption Reserve account is — Show Answer

Q681) X Ltd, decides to redeem 650, 15% Red. Pref. Shares of Rs. 100 each at a premium of 10%. It has a General Reserve of Rs. 70,000 and a Securities Premium of Rs. 4,000. If it is decided to issue 2,000 Equity Shares of Rs .10 each at 25% premium for the purpose of redemption of Pref. Shares, the amount to be transferred to capital Redemption account is — Show Answer

Q682) X Ltd. to redeem 650, 15% Red. Pref. Shares of Rs. 100 each at a premium of 10%. It has General Reserve of Rs. 70,000 and a Securities Premium of Rs. 4,000. If it is decided to issue 1,950 Equity Shares of Rs. 10 each at 30% premium for the purpose of redemption of Pref. Shares, the amount required to be transferred to capital Redemption Reserve Account is —— Show Answer

Q683) X Ltd. decides to redeem 650, 15% red. Pref. Shares of Rs. 100 each at premium of 10%. It has General Reserve of Rs.70,000 and a Securities Premium of Rs. 4,000. If it is a decided to issue 3125 Equity Shares of Rs10 each at 20% discount for the purpose of redemption of Pref. Shares, the amount required to be transferred to Capital Redemption Reserve Account is — Show Answer

Q684) X Ltd. decides to redeem 650, 15% Pref. Shares of Rs. 100 each at 10% premium. It has a General reserve of Rs. 45,000 and Securities Premium of Rs. 1,000. If the new equity shares are to be issued at 25% premium, the minimum number of Equity shares of Rs. 10 each to be issued for the purpose of redemption is —— Show Answer

Q685) On September 1, 2006, the company issued 12,000, 10%. Debenture having a face value of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 2.5%. On Sept. 10, the company issued 25,000 Equity Shares of Rs. 100 each. On September 29, the company redeemed 30,000, 6% preference shares of Rs. 100 each at a premium of 5% together with one month dividend thereon. Bank balance as on August 31,2005 was Rs. 26,60,000
After effecting the above transactions, the bank balance as on September 30, 2006=?
Show Answer

Q686) Cash required to effect the above decision is – Show Answer

Q687) The balance of Securities Premium Account after adjusting premium on
redemption of pref. shores is —
Show Answer

Q688) S Ltd. issued 2,000, 10% Preference shares of Rs. 100 each at par, which are redeemable at a premium of 10%. For the purpose of redemption, the company issued 15,000 Equity Shares of Rs. 100 each at a premium of 20% per share. At the time of redemption of Preference Shares, the amount to be transferred by the company to the Capital Redemption Reserve Account=? Show Answer

Q689) According the section 78 of the Companies Act, the amount in the Securities
Premium A/c cannot be used for the purpose of
Show Answer

Q690) Which of the following statements is false? Show Answer

Q691) Preference shares amounting to Rs. 2,00,000 are redeemed at a premium of 5%, by issue of shares amounting to Rs. 1,00,000 at a premium of 10%. The amount to be transferred to capital redemption reserve=? Show Answer

Q692) Which of the following cannot be used for the purpose of creation of capital
redemption reserve account?
Show Answer

Q693) A transfer to Capital Redemption Reserve is required u/s 80 when preference
shares are redeemed
Show Answer

Q694) The premium, if any payable on redemption must be provided for out of: Show Answer

Q695) A preference share is one which enjoys a Show Answer

Q696) Which of the following statement is false? Show Answer

Q697) Following statements apply to Equity/Preference shareholders which one of them applies only to preference shareholders ? Show Answer

Q698) As per the Companies Act ,1956 ,only preference shares, which are redeemable within _____can be issued Show Answer

Q699) Unless otherwise stated , a Preference Shares is always deemed to be Show Answer

Q700) A preference share which carries the right of sharing in the surplus left after paying enquiry Dividend is called -- Show Answer

Q701) Which type of the following shares have the right to receive dividends unpaid in prior years, whenever earnings become adequate ? Show Answer

Q702) The companies Act ,1956 prohibits the issue of any preference share which is Show Answer

Q703) Redeemable Preference shares are those shares on which Capital is to be paid back within Capital is to e paid back within the stipulated period of Show Answer

Q704) As per Schedule VI of the companies Act 1956,under which of the following heads of ‘premium on issue of preference shares’ shown in the Balance Sheet of a company Show Answer

Q705) How many 15% Preference shares of Rs. 100 each will be allotted to the Vendor ,if the shares are issued at a premium of 25% ? Show Answer

Q706) How many Preference will be issued allotted to the Vendor ,if the shares are allotted at 10% discount ? Show Answer

Q707) Preference shares can be redeemed -- Show Answer

Q708) Redemption of Preference share Capital can be done Show Answer

Q709) Which of the following cannot be utilized for redemption of preference shares Show Answer

Q710) On redemption of preference shares money cannot be arranged (for payment to shareholders) from Show Answer

Q711) Which of the following condition should be satisfied to redeem the preference shares ? Show Answer

Q712) Which of these is not one of the conditions for redemption of Redeemable Preference Share? Show Answer

Q713) If preference shares are redeemed at premium such premium may be provided out of Show Answer

Q714) Preference shares can be redeemed: Show Answer

Q715) When face value of debentures is more than issue price then debentures are said to be issued at- Show Answer

Q716) Premium on issue of debentures must be credited to a separate account called Show Answer

Q717) Which of the following type of security can be issued at discount as per Companies Act, 2013?
(1) Equity Shares
(2) Sweat Equity Shares
(3) Preference Shares
(4) Debentures
(5) Bonds
Select the correct answer from the options given below -
Show Answer

Q718) The discount on issue of debentures must be treated as - Show Answer

Q719) In case of oversubscription of debentures each applicant receives the debentures in some proportion, it is known as - Show Answer

Q720) Which of the following security can be forfeited for non-payment of allotment or call money?
(I) Equity Shares
(II) Equity Shares, Preference Shares
(III) Preference Shares, Equity Shares & Debentures
(IV) Debentures
Select the correct answer from the options given below -
Show Answer

Q721) Which of the following security cannot be forfeited for non-payment of allotment or call money? Show Answer

Q722) If a company receives excess application money and the application money equal to debentures issued transferred to 5% Debentures A/c and application money received on excess debentures - some money is adjusted and against allotment and remaining was refunded, then which of the following entry is correct? _____, Show Answer

Q723) Debenture holders are the ….. of the company. Show Answer

Q724) Debenture holders Show Answer

Q725) Debentures may be issued at - Show Answer

Q726) Debenture interest is paid at a pre¬determined _____ while dividend on equity shares is paid at a Show Answer

Q727) Interest on debentures is the _____ against profits. Show Answer

Q728) In the company's balance sheet, debentures are shown under the head - Show Answer

Q729) Debentures ….. converted into shares as per the terms of issue of debenture Show Answer

Q730) Debentures ….. forfeited for non¬ payment of call moneys. Show Answer

Q731) At the time of liquidation, debenture holders are paid-off ….. the shareholders are paid. Show Answer

Q732) If the debentures are issued at a price higher than the nominal value of the debentures, the premium should be credited to - Show Answer

Q733) Discount on issue of debentures is - Show Answer

Q734) Debentures may be issued by a company for - Show Answer

Q735) The company may allot debentures to the vendors for acquiring some assets as payment for purchase consideration, such issue of debentures to vendors is known as issue of debentures for - Show Answer

Q736) If the value of debentures allotted to vendors for acquiring some assets as payment for purchase consideration is more than the agreed purchase price, the difference is credited to: Show Answer

Q737) If the value of debentures allotted to vendors for acquiring some assets as payment for purchase consideration is less than the agreed purchase price, the difference is debited to - Show Answer

Q738) When debentures are issued as collateral security which of the following accounting treatment can be adopted? Show Answer

Q739) Which of the following statements is TRUE? Show Answer

Q740) Premium on redemption of debentures account appearing in the balance sheet is Show Answer

Q741) Which of the following statements is FALSE? Show Answer

Q742) Which of the following statements is false? Show Answer

Q743) Debenture interest - Show Answer

Q744) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Bearer Debentures? Show Answer

Q745) When debentures are issued as collateral security, the final entry for recording the collateral debentures in the books is: Show Answer

Q746) Which of the following statements is false? Show Answer

Q747) Interest on debentures is calculated on: Show Answer

Q748) Which of the following is true with regard to 10% Debentures issued at a discount of 20%? Show Answer

Q749) Discount on issue of debentures is a: Show Answer

Q750) When debentures are issued as collateral security against any loan then holder of such debentures is entitled to Show Answer

Q751) When debentures are redeemable at different dates, the total amount of discount on issue of debentures should be written off: Show Answer

Q752) Non convertible debentures refer to - Show Answer

Q753) Interest accrued & due on debentures” is shown - Show Answer

Q754) "Interest accrued & not due on debentures” is shown - Show Answer

Q755) Tax deducted at source on interest on debenture is shown as - Show Answer

Q756) Debenture premium cannot be used - Show Answer

Q757) Debentures can be redeemed out of - Show Answer

Q758) Debentures normally cannot be redeemed at - Show Answer

Q759) If debentures are issued at discount and redeemed at premium Show Answer

Q760) Profit on cancellation of debentures is transferred to - Show Answer

Q761) As a sound accounting policy when debentures are redeemed amount equal to Show Answer

Q762) Statement I:
Debentures can be converted into shares as per the terms of issue of debentures.
Statement II:
Shares cannot be converted into debentures in any circumstances.
Select the correct answer from the options given below -
Show Answer

Q763) Arrange the priority of payment in case of liquidation of company:
I. Preference shares holders
II. Secured creditors
m. Equity shareholders
IV. Unsecured creditors
V. Debenture holders
Select the correct answer from the options given below -
Show Answer

Q764) Discount on issue of debentures, being a capital loss must be shown - Show Answer

Q765) Sound business policy demands that discount on issue of debenture should be written off - Show Answer

Q766) Which of the following is not a method of writing off discount on issue of debentures? Show Answer

Q767) If the company acquires some assets from the vendor and instead of paying the vendor in cash, the company may allots debentures in payment of purchase consideration. In such case if the face value of debentures issued is more than value of assets acquired then difference will be - Show Answer

Q768) Debentures Suspense Account - Show Answer

Q769) Who of the following is not required to create Debenture Redemption Reserve? Show Answer

Q770) Every company required to create DRR shall on or before the 30th day of April in each year, invest or deposit, as the case may be, a sum which shall not be less than _____, of the amount of its debentures maturing during the year ending on the 31st day of March of the next year Show Answer

Q771) An other name of Debenture Redemp¬tion Fund Method is - Show Answer

Q772) An other name of Debenture Redemp¬tion Fund Method is - Show Answer

Q773) Debenture redemption fund investment account will appear on the assets side of the balance sheet under the head _____,while debenture redemption fund account will appear on the liabilities side under the head _____ Show Answer

Q774) Which of the following is correct journal entry for annual contribution to sinking fund created for redemption of debentures? Show Answer

Q775) Loss on sale of Debenture Redemption Fund Investment account must be set-off
against -
Show Answer

Q776) If the purchase price for the debentures includes interest for the expired period, the quotation is said to be - Show Answer

Q777) . If nothing is stated, purchase & sale of debentures, government securities should be taken to be on - Show Answer

Q778) If debentures are issued at discount but redeemable at premium then - Show Answer

Q779) Debenture issued at par but redeemable at price less than face value then - Show Answer

Q780) Correct entry to transfer interest received on sinking fund investment is - Show Answer

Q781) Debenture holders are Show Answer

Q782) Debentures represent the Show Answer

Q783) Zero Coupon Bonds are issued : Show Answer

Q784) Interest payable on debentures is : Show Answer

Q785) A debenture holder is entitled to : Show Answer

Q786) On liquidation of company, principal amount of debentures is returned : Show Answer

Q787) Which of the following statements is false? Show Answer

Q788) Which of the following is not a characteristic of Bearer Debentures? Show Answer

Q789) Which of the following statements is false? Show Answer

Q790) Which of the following statements is false : Show Answer

Q791) The Principal amount of debentures will be repaid by the company either at the end of a specified period or by instalments during the life time of the company. Such types of debentures are called : Show Answer

Q792) The debentures whose principal amount is not repayable by the company during its life time, but the payment is made only at the time of Liquidation of the company, such debentures are called : Show Answer

Q793) Debenture Application Account is in the natutre of Show Answer

Q794) Discount on issue of Debentures is in the nature of Show Answer

Q795) Premium received on issue of debentures may be utilised for Show Answer

Q796) Debenture holders are Show Answer

Q797) Zero Coupon Bonds are issued : Show Answer

Q798) Interest payable on debentures is : Show Answer

Q799) A debenture holder is entitled to : Show Answer

Q800) Which of the following statements is false? Show Answer

Q801) Which of the following is not a characteristic of Bearer Debentures? Show Answer

Q802) Which of the following statements is false? Show Answer

Q803) Which of the following statements is false : Show Answer

Q804) Discount on the issue of Debentures should be shown on the Show Answer

Q805) Debentures of a Company can be issued : Show Answer

Q806) On issue of debentures as a collateral security, which account is credited? Show Answer

Q807) Interest on debentures issued as a collateral security is paid on : Show Answer

Q808) Loss on Issue of Debentures is written off: Show Answer

Q809) When debentures are to be redeemed at premium an extra entry has to be made at the time of issue of debentures, which a/c should be credited in this entry? Show Answer

Q810) Premium on Redemption of Debentures Account is : Show Answer

Q811) ___________ allocates saving efficiently in an economy to ultimate users either for investment in real assets or for consumption Show Answer

Q812) Which of the following is not a regulatory institutions in Indian financial system. Show Answer

Q813) ___________ is regarded as a queen of Indian financial system. Show Answer

Q814) ————— represent claims for the payment of a sum of money sometimes in the future and/or a periodic payment in the form of interest or dividend. Show Answer

Q815) SEBI was established in —————. Show Answer

Q816) RBI started functioning on —————. Show Answer

Q817) National Housing bank is a fully owned subsidiary of —————. Show Answer

Q818) ————— has the statutory powers to regulate and promote the Indian capital market. Show Answer

Q819) Any company making a public issue of value of more than Rs. ———— is required to file a draft offer document with SEBI Show Answer

Q820) ————— Committee was constituted by SEBI for deciding about derivatives trading. Show Answer

Q821) RBI is the lender of last resort for —————. Show Answer

Q822) The market regulator of Indian Capital Market is …………… Show Answer

Q823) …………………… facilitate the transfer of funds from savers to the borrowers. Show Answer

Q824) ……………………… market is a market for old issues. Show Answer

Q825) Which of the following is a financial asset Show Answer

Q826) Which of the following is a cash asset? Show Answer

Q827) Govt. bond is a Show Answer

Q828) Money market deals with ..................... instruments. Show Answer

Q829) The market for extremely short period loan is called. .................... Show Answer

Q830) ..................... acts as an intermediary between Govt. and money market Show Answer

Q831) ................... are drawn by contractors on the Govt. departments for the goods supplied to them Show Answer

Q832) The bill which doesn’t require acceptance is called. .................... Show Answer

Q833) ..................... are an important instrument of short term borrowing by the Govt Show Answer

Q834) ..................... is a market for bankers’ acceptances Show Answer

Q835) Accommodation bills are also known as ..................... bills Show Answer

Q836) Adhoc treasury bills are issued in favour of the ..................... only Show Answer

Q837) ..................... are short term deposits of specific maturity similar to fixed deposits. Show Answer

Q838) ..................... is an unsecured short term promissory note issued by creditworthy companies? Show Answer

Q839) Discount and Finance House of India was set up in ..................... Show Answer

Q840) Discount and Finance House of India was set up in pursuance of the recommendations of .....................Committee Show Answer

Q841) ..................... has been set up mainly to provide a secondary market in Govt. Securities Show Answer

Q842) Right shares are offered to..................... Show Answer

Q843) ..................... is the suitable method where small companies issue shares Show Answer

Q844) ..................... is a process of admitting securities for trading on a recognised stock exchange. Show Answer

Q845) ..................... is a preferential independent broker who deals in securities on his own behalf. Show Answer

Q846) The facility to carry forward a transaction from one settlement period to another is known as ..................... transaction Show Answer

Q847) The device adopted to make profit out of the differences in prices of a security in to different markets is called. .................... Show Answer

Q848) The central depositary ..................... the security on behalf of the investors Show Answer

Q849) ..................... of shares in the first step in the depository process Show Answer

Q850) ..................... is the link between the depository and the owner Show Answer

Q851) ..................... issues does not bring in any fresh capital Show Answer

Q852) Prospectus is not issued in Show Answer

Q853) An issuer need not file an offer document in case of Show Answer

Q854) An issuer can launch an IPO within..................... Show Answer

Q855) An issue of a minimum size of Rs. ..................... crore is a mega issue Show Answer

Q856) Financial institutions are also known as ........................ Show Answer

Q857) ........................ is the first development financial institution in India. Show Answer

Q858) Management Development Institute (MDI)was set up by ........................ Show Answer

Q859) IDBI was established in ........................ Show Answer

Q860) ........................ is an apex institution to coordinate, supplement and integrate the
activities of all existing specialised financial institutions
Show Answer

Q861) Technical consultancy Organisations were set up by........................ Show Answer

Q862) ICICI was set up in ........................ Show Answer

Q863) ........................ assists mainly to industrial undertakings in the private sector Show Answer

Q864) LIC was established in........................ Show Answer

Q865) UTI was set up in the year ........................ Show Answer

Q866) ................known as Brettonwood twins Show Answer

Q867) World bank is also known as........................ Show Answer

Q868) World bank was set up in ........................ Show Answer

Q869) IMF commenced financial operation on........................ Show Answer

Q870) Which of the following gives long term finance? Show Answer

Q871) Which of the following is a fee based service Show Answer

Q872) Find the odd one out Show Answer

Q873) The process of managing the sales ledger of a client by a financial service company is called Show Answer

Q874) Mutual funds are very popular in Show Answer

Q875) In India, the company which actually deals with the corpus of the mutual fund is called Show Answer

Q876) The first bank in India to start factoring business is Show Answer

Q877) An asset with a physical value is called Show Answer

Q878) An asset which derives its value because of a contractual claim is Show Answer

Q879) Gold is -----------asset Show Answer

Q880) Cash is --------------asset Show Answer

Q881) -------------is a whole sale market for short term debt instrument Show Answer

Q882) Money lent in the inter-bank market for 15 days or more is called ----------- Show Answer

Q883) When money lent for more than a day but up to a fortnight is called Show Answer

Q884) CBLO stands for Show Answer

Q885) The NSDL established in Show Answer

Q886) In a private placement the maximum number of investors shall not exceed Show Answer

Q887) Merchant banks in India started in Show Answer

Q888) Merchant banks concept in India introduced by Show Answer

Q889) SENSEX is the index of Show Answer

Q890) NIFTY is the index of Show Answer

Q891) The first Indian equity index is Show Answer

Q892) ............ is a product whose value is derived from the value of underlying asset Show Answer

Q893) BOLT stands for Show Answer

Q894) --------------is also known as “G.Secs” Show Answer

Q895) .................. are negotiable instrument issued by an overseas depository Show Answer

Q896) Perpetual bond is also known as Show Answer

Q897) Zero Coupon Bond is also known as Show Answer

Q898) Secured Premium Notes (SPN) always issued with........... Show Answer

Q899) ................ bonds permit the bond holder to invest the interest income again in host bonds Show Answer

Q900) ...............bonds are high risk and high yield bonds developed in USA Show Answer

Q901) ESOP stands for Show Answer

Q902) QIPs Stands for Show Answer

Q903) What you mean by “STRIPS Show Answer

Q904) Gilt Edged Securities are Show Answer

Q905) In India, forfaiting services are offered by Show Answer

Q906) The small investors’ gateway to enter into big companies is ————— Show Answer

Q907) Money Market mutual fund is also known as--------------- Show Answer

Q908) ————— fund invests in highly liquid securities like commercial paper. Show Answer

Q909) The idea of providing factoring services in India was first thought by ————— Show Answer

Q910) The market for extremely short period loan is called Show Answer

Q911) ---------- bills are drawn by contractors on the government departments for the goods supplied by them. Show Answer

Q912) ---------- is also known as ‘Industrial Paper” Show Answer

Q913) Demand bills are also known as Show Answer

Q914) Usance bills are also known as Show Answer

Q915) Which of the following are examples of Hundis in india Show Answer

Q916) Bills drawn and accepted payable after three months are called Show Answer

Q917) The market which helps commercial banks to maintain their SLR requirement is Show Answer

Q918) Bill Market Scheme in India was introduced in the year Show Answer

Q919) Adhoc T-bills are always issued in favour of-------- Show Answer

Q920) The certificate which evidences an unsecured corporate debt of short term maturity Show Answer

Q921) Major players of Indian money market is Show Answer

Q922) -------- is the suitable method where small companies issue shares Show Answer

Q923) Zero interest bonds are always issued Show Answer

Q924) -------- is a guarantee for marketability of shares Show Answer

Q925) Which one of the following is /are not function of NIM Show Answer

Q926) BOLT was introduced by BSE in the year Show Answer

Q927) -------- is a permission to quote securities officially on the trading floor of stock exchange Show Answer

Q928) The number of shares which are less than market lots are called Show Answer

Q929) Rolling Settlement system was introduced by SEBI in the year Show Answer

Q930) The facility to carry forward a transaction from one settlement period to another is called --------- transaction Show Answer

Q931) The device adopted to make profit out of price differences in two different markets Show Answer

Q932) A person appointed by a stock broker to assist to him in the business of securities trading at trading floor of stock exchanges is Show Answer

Q933) ------------- is also known as Remisiers and Half-commission man Show Answer

Q934) An order for the purchase of securities at a fixed price is known as Show Answer

Q935) Speculator who neither buy nor sell securities in the market, but still trade on them are called Show Answer

Q936) The process of holding the entire supply of a particular security with a view to dictating terms is called Show Answer

Q937) ------------ market deals in unlisted securities Show Answer

Q938) When purchases of securities are more than sales of securities, the market is called Show Answer

Q939) When sales of securities are more than purchases of securities, the market is called Show Answer

Q940) --------- is the charges paid by a bull speculator to the other party for obtaining carry over facility Show Answer

Q941) . --------- is the amount paid by bear to facilitate him to renew a bargain until next settlement date Show Answer

Q942) -------- is the process of selling securities without owning them Show Answer

Q943) Bull speculators are also known as Show Answer

Q944) Bear speculators are also known as Show Answer

Q945) Another name of jobber is Show Answer

Q946) Those who provides finance for carry forward transactions in securities is called Show Answer

Q947) The speculator who observes very fast the trends and changes in market is Show Answer

Q948) ------is the bear speculator who struggling to complete his commitments because of wrong foot Show Answer

Q949) An option (right) to purchase shares in future at predetermined price is called Show Answer

Q950) An option (right) to sell shares in future at predetermined price is called Show Answer

Q951) ---------- refers to the process of creating an artificial condition in market in order to push price of particular shares Show Answer

Q952) An attempt to gaining short term profit from the price difference or movements of securities are called Show Answer

Q953) Companies (Amendment) bill-1999 restricts buy back of shares up to........... of the paid up capital Show Answer

Q954) SIDBI is fully owned subsidiary of Show Answer

Q955) “AMBI” stand for Show Answer

Q956) In listed securities, “Group A shares” are also known as Show Answer

Q957) In listed securities, “Group B shares” are also known as Show Answer

Q958) Odd lot shares are coming under -------- of listed securities Show Answer

Q959) ALBM (Automated Lending &Borrowing Mechanism) was introduced by Show Answer

Q960) under public issue of shares, reservation for permanent employees Show Answer

Q961) The conditions to be satisfied by a public company for issuing Right shares are specified in --------------of Companies Act.1956 Show Answer

Q962) ----------- is a method of cancellation of shares Show Answer

Q963) Which of the following is / are method of Buy back of shares Show Answer

Q964) Over the Counter Exchange of India commenced operation in the year Show Answer

Q965) Members of the OTCEI are---------- only Show Answer

Q966) The whole sale market segment for NSE is meant for Show Answer

Q967) As per SEBI guidelines, a new company which has not completed 12 months commercial productions has to issue shares at ------- Show Answer

Q968) National Stock Exchange (NSE) established in the year Show Answer

Q969) Method of trading in NSE is Show Answer

Q970) Method of trading in OTCEI is Show Answer

Q971) -------- are eligible to list in OTCEI Show Answer

Q972) Discount and Finance House of India (DFHI) mainly deals in Show Answer

Q973) -------- of shares is the first step in depository process Show Answer

Q974) In depository system, --------- is a link between depository and the owner. Show Answer

Q975) “A central location for keeping securities on deposit” is Show Answer

Q976) The group of shares which are not permitted for short selling are Show Answer

Q977) --------- group includes shares of companies which have failed to comply with listing requirements Show Answer

Q978) In listed scrips, --------- group includes small cap stocks. Show Answer

Q979) Shares of well established and financially sound compnies, with very little investment risk and good history of earnings is known as Show Answer

Q980) In a stock exchange where the ownership, management and trading are concentrated in a single group, it is called Show Answer

Q981) In India, currently method of calculation of stock indexes is Show Answer

Q982) Fully automated screen based trading system in NSE is known as Show Answer

Q983) The Chief promoter of National Securities Depository Limited (NSDL) is Show Answer

Q984) The Chief promoter of Central Depository Services Limited CDSL) is Show Answer

Q985) The third largest stock exchange in the world is Show Answer

Q986) In the index “CNX Nifty”, C stands for Show Answer

Q987) The dollar version of Index of BSE is Show Answer

Q988) In BSE, T+2 rolling settlement began in the year Show Answer

Q989) In settlement T+2, ‘T’ stands for Show Answer

Q990) Which one of the following is an example of derivative? Show Answer

Q991) The process in which illiquid assets are converted into marketable securities is known as Show Answer

Q992) Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security
Interest (SARFAESI) Act passed in the year
Show Answer

Q993) In security market, “ASBA” stands for Show Answer

Q994) In financial circle, the name “Dalal Street” is used synonyms to......... Show Answer

Q995) The name “Wall Street” is used to synonyms to.......... Show Answer

Q996) Credit rating indicates -------- of a company Show Answer

Q997) Credit rating is only a / an.............. Show Answer

Q998) Which of the following is not a credit rating agency? Show Answer

Q999) At present, how many Non-scheduled banks are functioning in India Show Answer

Q1000) Investment Information and Credit Rating Agency of India (IICRA) is a Show Answer

Q1001) --------- variety of mutual fund is known as “Nest Eggs” Show Answer

Q1002) Generally mutual funds are of Show Answer

Q1003) The corpus of funds and its duration is fixed in case of ------- fund Show Answer

Q1004) The market performance of mutual fund can be judged on the basis of Show Answer

Q1005) ----------- is the regulator of mutual funds in India Show Answer

Q1006) ------ is the venture capital assistance at the stage where the project started to fetch profit but not reached in its full efficiency Show Answer

Q1007) In ----------leasing, the risk of obsolescence is assumed by the lessee Show Answer

Q1008) ----------- is a tripartite lease arrangement Show Answer

Q1009) In hire purchase depreciation can be claimed by the Show Answer

Q1010) A merchant bank can claim a charge ------- % as the commission for the whole issue Show Answer

Q1011) Which of the following is not a quantitative credit control tool of RBI? Show Answer

Q1012) Which of the following is a selective (qualitative) credit control method? Show Answer

Q1013) Currency notes of rupee one and other lower subsidiary coins are issued by Show Answer

Q1014) American Depository Receipts (ADRs) are issuing by Show Answer

Q1015) ----------- is the process of converting security in electronic form into physical form Show Answer

Q1016) ----------- is dealing in securities done by those who having access to price sensitive information. Show Answer

Q1017) --------- is a calculated move with an expectation to reap huge profit from market fluctuations Show Answer

Q1018) ---------- speculators are optimistic in nature Show Answer

Q1019) ---------- speculators are Pessimistic in nature Show Answer

Q1020) The scheme in which company can allot shares not more than 15% of the issue size, to the public in addition to the shares already offered- is called Show Answer

Q1021) The merchant banker coordinating a public issue is called as Show Answer

Q1022) -------- is a shortened form of prospectus Show Answer

Q1023) -------- is an offer document is used in public issue made under book building method. Show Answer

Q1024) In technical sense, short sellers (bears) will be “squeezed” through Show Answer

Q1025) ---------- is known as ‘Traffic in securities’ Show Answer

Q1026) A system of security trade in which one is allowed to invest in excess of his financial capacity by borrowing funds Show Answer

Q1027) Which of the following speculative transactions are unfair and prohibited? Show Answer

Q1028) Which of the following is not a prohibited act in security market? Show Answer

Q1029) ------- is undertaken for making a dishonest claim for tax deduction Show Answer

Q1030) -------- means temporary halt of trade in stock exchanges whenever index moves upward or downward beyond the specified limits Show Answer

Q1031) Unsecured debentures are also known as........... Show Answer

Q1032) Non-voting shares were introduced by Companies (Amendment) bills in the year Show Answer

Q1033) in the case of -------- bonds, the value is inversely related to short term interest rates. Show Answer

Q1034) “D vs. P” system for government securities market means Show Answer

Q1035) Non banking financial institutions (NBFIs) are registered under Show Answer

Q1036) According to IFRS, the term financial asset includes Show Answer

Q1037) Which of the following is /are example of primary or direct financial instrument Show Answer

Q1038) Which of the following is /are example of Secondary or indirect financial instrument Show Answer

Q1039) A Non Banking Financial Institution Show Answer

Q1040) A Non Banking Financial Institution Show Answer

Q1041) Kerala State Financial Enterprises ltd (KSFE) is an example of Show Answer

Q1042) UTI, LIC etc are examples of Show Answer

Q1043) SFC is an example of Show Answer

Q1044) Which of the following is /are not regulatory institutions Show Answer

Q1045) Which of the following is not a negotiable instrument? Show Answer

Q1046) Follow on Public Offer’ is also known as Show Answer

Q1047) Follow on Public Offer’ is also known as Show Answer

Q1048) “Uberrimae. Fidei” means Show Answer

Q1049) ........... is the oldest insurance Show Answer

Q1050) In.----------------, insurable interest is enough at the time of loss Show Answer

Q1051) In. insurance, “Causa Proxima” means Show Answer

Q1052) __________ is a financial service which pooling risks of people Show Answer

Q1053) In India Insurance business are regulated by Show Answer

Q1054) Except life insurance maximum term of other insurance is __________ Show Answer

Q1055) Central office of Life Insurance Corporation of India is located at Show Answer

Q1056) There are........ associated companies of GIC Show Answer

Q1057) Native Stock and Share Brokers Association” is the old name of............ Show Answer

Q1058) General insurance business nationalized in the year---------- Show Answer

Q1059) Principle of Indemnity does not apply to---------- Show Answer

Q1060) A merchant bank is a financial institution conducting money market activities Show Answer

Q1061) In India Merchant banking along with management of public issues and loan syndication
covering activities like
1. Project counseling
2. Portfolio management
3. Investment counseling
4. Mergers and amalgamation of the corporate firms
5. Securities and exchange
Show Answer

Q1062) Formal merchant banking activity in India was originated in______. Show Answer

Q1063) In India, merchant-banking activity was originated with the merchant banking division set
up by the __________.
Show Answer

Q1064) State Bank of India started merchant banking in ______ followed by ICICI in ______ Show Answer

Q1065) State Bank of India started merchant banking in ______ followed by ICICI in ______ Show Answer

Q1066) The early growth of merchant banking in the country is assigned to the ________. Show Answer

Q1067) Developmental activities of merchant banking: Show Answer

Q1068) Different enactments for raising funds from the capital market:
1. Companies Act
2. Income-Tax Act
3. Foreign Exchange Regulation Act
4. Securities Contracts Act
5. Corporate laws and Regulations
Show Answer

Q1069) The term ‘Merchant Bank’ is used in: Show Answer

Q1070) In India, merchant Banks operate in the form of divisions of India and foreign banks and
financial institution, Subsidiary companies established by1. SBI Capital Markets Ltd.
2. Can Bank Financial Services Ltd.
3. PNB Capital Services Ltd.
4. BOI Finance Ltd.
5. Indian Bank Merchant Banking Services Ltd.
Show Answer

Q1071) Banks implement the RBI’s _______ policies. Show Answer

Q1072) State level financial institutions are:
1. IFCI
2. SFCs
3. SIDCs
4. IRBI
5. SIICs
Show Answer

Q1073) _____ is basically a savings and investment corporation. Show Answer

Q1074) Identify the money market instruments:
1. Call Money Market
2. Treasury Bills
3. Commercial bills
Show Answer

Q1075) Secondary markets in treasury bills require involvement of ________ and _______ Show Answer

Q1076) Merchant bank is an organization thata. Underwrites securities for corporations Show Answer

Q1077) The criteria for authorization of merchant bankers includes:
1. Professional qualification in finance, law or business management
2. Infrastructure like adequate office space, equipment and manpower
3. Employment of two persons who have the experience to conduct business of merchant
bankers
4. Capital adequacy
5. Past track record, experience, general expectation and fairness in all transaction
Show Answer

Q1078) The four categories of merchant bankers issued by SEBI:
1. First category i. Who act as an advisor or consultant to an issue
2. Secondary category ii. Those authorized to act as an underwriter, advisor.
3. Third category iii. Those authorized to act in the capacity of co-manager
4. Fourth category iv. Who carry on any activity of issue management
Show Answer

Q1079) Issue management is an important function of ______ and ______. Show Answer

Q1080) In simple terms, the management of issues for raising funds through various types of
instruments by companies is known as:
Show Answer

Q1081) Companies raise funds for the purposes of:
1. Financing new projects
2. Expansion of existing units
3. Modernization & diversification of existing units
4. Organizing long term resources for working capital purposes
Show Answer

Q1082) Categories of securities issue: Show Answer

Q1083) Private placement coversa Show Answer

Q1084) Match the following:
1. Public issue i. When capital funds are raised through the issue of
prospects.
2. Rights issue
ii. When shares are issued to the existing shareholders of a
company
3. Private placement iii. When the issuing company sells securities directly to the
investors
Show Answer

Q1085) Equity funding is preferable especially when the project is________. Show Answer

Q1086) Match the following:
1. Pre-Issue Activities i. Signing of MOU
2. Post-Issue Activities ii. Dispatch of share certificates
iii. Issue of closure iv. Finalization
of basis of allotment
v. Filing with ROC
vi. Advertisement
Show Answer

Q1087) The _______ has to manage the post-issue activities. Show Answer

Q1088) It is a process by which a demand for the securities proposed to be issued by a body
corporate is elicited.
Show Answer

Q1089) Financial services through the network of elements such as ________, serve the needs of
individuals, institutions and Corporate
Show Answer

Q1090) ______ is regarded as the fourth element of the financial system Show Answer

Q1091) Objectives of financial services:
1. Fund raising
2. Funds deployment
3. Specialized services
4. Regulation
5. Economic growth
Show Answer

Q1092) Chief characteristics of financial services:
1. Intangibility
2. Customer orientation
3. Inseparability
4. Dynamism
Show Answer

Q1093) Match the following:
1.Fund based activities i. Underwriting of/or investment in shares 2.
Non-fund based activities ii. Dealing in secondary market
iii. Arrangement of funds from financial institutions iv. Managing the capital
issues
Show Answer

Q1094) Factors affecting assigned ratings: Show Answer

Q1095) Identify the benefits of credit-rating to investors:
1. Safeguard against bankruptcy
2. Lower cost of borrowing
3. Saving of resources
4. Reduction of cost in public issues
5. Credibility of issues
6. Wider audience for borrowing
Show Answer

Q1096) CRISIL has been promoted by ____ and _____. Show Answer

Q1097) The term _____ is defined as a central location for keeping securities on deposit.
Show Answer

Q1098) The principal instruments of the organized money market –
1. The call money market
2. The repo market
3. The treasury bill market
4. The commercial bill market
5. The certificate of deposits market
6. The commercial papers market
7. The money market mutual funds
Show Answer

Q1099) Any change in flow of funds and the demand of them, is clearly reflected in – Show Answer

Q1100) _______ operates in Inter-bank call money market. Show Answer

Q1101) Lead merchant banker should advice the issuer to enter into ???????? with a particular
intermediary for the purpose of issue management
Show Answer

Q1102) The number of lead merchant bankers may not exceed in case any issue of, issue size
200crore to 400crore.
Show Answer

Q1103) A merchant bank can help an organization specifically in promotional functions,
????????????????????.
Show Answer

Q1104) Role of merchant bankers????????. Show Answer

Q1105) ?????????????? is a financial intermediary who helps to mobilize and transfer capital from those
who possess it to those who need it.
Show Answer

Q1106) .????????????? is a long term risk capital to finance high technology projects which involve risk
but at same time has strong potential for growth.
Show Answer

Q1107) ?????????????????act as an intermediary to link up the sources of ideas and the sources of fund. Show Answer

Q1108) The first bank to set up a separate merchant banking division in India. Show Answer

Q1109) Which of the following is not a fee?based financial service? Show Answer

Q1110) All merchant bankers must have minimum net worth of ???????????????. Show Answer

Q1111) Find out odd one? Authorization criteria of merchant bankers. Show Answer

Q1112) ????????????????? covers the entire range of services provided by a merchant banker. Show Answer

Q1113) Functions of financial services exclude ??????????????????????. Show Answer

Q1114) Financial service companies exclude ??????????????????????. Show Answer

Q1115) Financial services offered financing risk project e.g. Risk capital scheme of I F C I venture
capital fund of I D F I etc. to provide ????????????????.
Show Answer

Q1116) Category 1 merchant bankers can act as . Show Answer

Q1117) Merchant bankers are . Show Answer

Q1118) Merchant banker shall not associate with any business other than that of the securities
market.
Show Answer

Q1119) The number of lead merchant bankers may not exceeds in case any issue of , issue size less than Rs.50crore,number of MBs ?????????????????. Show Answer

Q1120) The holders of which instrument are members of the company and have voting rights? Show Answer

Q1121) The well established and well-organised market where the sale-purchase of different securities takes place according to certain laws, is known as Show Answer

Q1122) In stock exchange operations, when the speculator buys the right to sell a certain number of shares on an agreed amount at a specified time it is known as Show Answer

Q1123) Interest rate futures trading in India is available on Show Answer

Q1124) Treasury bills are short-term debt instruments (less than ............. year to maturity) issued at a discount. Show Answer

Q1125) Which of the following are an important source of information about companies for investors? Show Answer

Q1126) The features of th^ commercial papers are Show Answer

Q1127) An option which gives the holder the right to sell a stock at a specified price at some time in the future is called a r Show Answer

Q1128) QFI is defined to means a person (.not resident in India), who is resident in a country that is compliant with which standards? Show Answer

Q1129) The financial market for securities with maturities of less than one year is known as Show Answer

Q1130) How are the market borrowings of State Government managed? Show Answer

Q1131) Which of the following statement is correct about daily volumes in the call money market? Show Answer

Q1132) Which of the following are the means of marketing new issues of securities?
1. By listing of securities
2. Through jobbers and brokers
3. By private placing of securities
4. Through privileged subscription
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes
Show Answer

Q1133) The comprehensive meaning of an efficient stock market is that it is market which Show Answer

Q1134) Arrange the following institutions in chronology order.
1. SEBI (Securities Exchange Board of India), 1988
2. Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR)
3. EXIM Bank
4. National Stock Exchange Codes
Show Answer

Q1135) Consider the following statements.
1. Transfer and transmission of shares are the same thing.
2. ‘Stag is a speculative person who applies for shares in a new issue expected to be over subscribed to make profit by selling such shares at a premium.
3. Stock is a bundle of fully paid shares put together for convenience.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Codes
Show Answer

Q1136) Which one of the following best supports the theory that the stock exchange is a secondary market? In a stock exchange Show Answer

Q1137) If in a year, the company does not have adequate profits, the dividend will not be payable in the case of which shares? Show Answer

Q1138) Who are professionals who offer independent advice on financial matters to their clients and recommend suitable financial products or products that are traded and settled like financial products? Show Answer

Q1139) Since, investors can diversify away their ............. risks, they have to be compensated only for ............. risk. Show Answer

Q1140) SEBI regulations require that there should be atleast ............. trustees (or directors in the trustee company) in a mutual fund. Show Answer

Q1141) Recognised stock exchange means a stock exchange which is for the time being recognised by Show Answer

Q1142) The pay-in and pay-out dates for the settlement calendar is declared Show Answer

Q1143) To operate in the derivative segment of NSE, the dealer/broker and sales persons are required to pass examination Show Answer

Q1144) A January month Nifty futures contract will expire on the last ………. of January Show Answer

Q1145) The F and O segment of NSE provides trading facilities for the following derivative instruments, except Show Answer

Q1146) Verification and upload of client details has to be done on SEBI website every Show Answer

Q1147) Who can nominate members on the governing body of a recognised stock exchange? Show Answer

Q1148) NSE’s Certification in Financial Markets (NCFM) is a necessary qualification for becoming a trading member Show Answer

Q1149) As per the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations, 1997, no acquirer who has acquired 15% or more, but less than 55% of the shares of a company shall acquire additional shares of the percentage specified below unless a public announcement is made. Show Answer

Q1150) Every listed company is required to submit to the stock exchange the shareholding pattern of the company on a Show Answer

Q1151) Under the member constituent agreement, trading members are required to make the clients aware of which of the following?
1. Trading segment in which the trading member is admitted.
2. SEBI registration number.
3. Basic risks involved in trading on the exchange.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes
Show Answer

Q1152) Which of the following is maintained by NSE to make good investor claims, which may arise out of non-settlement of obligations by the trading member, who has been declared defaulter, in respect of trades executed on the exchange. Show Answer

Q1153) Demutualisation of stock exchanges refers to Show Answer

Q1154) Prospectus issued by a company is to be vetted and approved by the SEBI. This, however, does not mean that Show Answer

Q1155) Consider the following statements.
1. Foreign institutional investors have been allowed to invest in mutual funds.
2. The main objective of SEBI is to protect the investors.
3. Private placement is the route, through which promoters’ contribution is mobilised by a public
company.
4. RBI lays down the guidelines governing the capital market operation.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Codes
Show Answer

Q1156) SEBI, in recent times, has made it mandatory for listed companies to disclose to the public the number of ‘Encumbered Shares’. What do such shares mean? Show Answer

Q1157) What is the maximum brokerage that can be charged by an NSE trading member for a deal in government securities for ? 20 million? Show Answer

Q1158) Which of the following statement is true about the NSE MIBOR polling process? Show Answer

Q1159) Which of the following statements is true? Show Answer

Q1160) An investor owns one thousand shares of Reliance. Around budget time, he gets uncomfortable with the price movements. One contract on Reliance is equivalent to 100 shares. Which of the following will give him the hedge he desires? Show Answer

Q1161) Any person or persons acting in concert, who
together own ............. or more of the open interest
in index derivatives are required to disclose the same to the clearing corporation
Show Answer

Q1162) Who under Section 13 of the SEBI Act, 1992, may make grants to the SEBI? Show Answer

Q1163) The Central Government has powers to supersede the SEBI, if it is of the opinion that Show Answer

Q1164) If the chairman is unable to attend any meeting of the SEBI then Show Answer

Q1165) WTio have to compensate any loss occasioned to any investor or to the scheme and/or plan on account of non-compliance by the fund? Show Answer

Q1166) Which of the following entities provide ‘Take out Finance’ to banks engaged in financing of infrastructure projects? Show Answer

Q1167) Consider the following statements.
1. UTI is established by an Act of Parliament in 1964. So, UTI does not come under the SEBI regulations for mutual funds.
2. Mutual fund organisations can invest their mobilised funds abroad.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Codes
Show Answer

Q1168) The first development financial institution of India was Show Answer

Q1169) The first development financial institution of India was Show Answer

Q1170) The first development financial institution of India was Show Answer

Q1171) Arrange the following banks in order, in which they were established.
1. IDBI 2. IFCI 3. SIDBI 4. IIBI
Codes
Show Answer

Q1172) Arrange the following banks in order, in which they were established.
1. IDBI 2. IFCI 3. SIDBI 4. IIBI
Codes
Show Answer

Q1173) Arrange the following banks in order, in which they were established.
1. IDBI 2. IFCI 3. SIDBI 4. IIBI
Codes
Show Answer

Q1174) IFCI is authorised to borrow from Show Answer

Q1175) IFCI can accept deposits from the public, State Government and local authorities for a period of less than Show Answer

Q1176) One of the functions of IDBI is to assist other
financial institutions by of loans granted for
exports.
Show Answer

Q1177) One of the functions of IDBI is to assist other
financial institutions by of loans granted for
exports.
Show Answer

Q1178) One of the functions of IDBI is to assist other
financial institutions by of loans granted for
exports.
Show Answer

Q1179) One of the functions of IDBI is to assist other
financial institutions by of loans granted for
exports.
Show Answer

Q1180) ............. acquired United Western Bank in a
rescue in 2006.
Show Answer

Q1181) Which one of the following is the main objective of Unit Trust of India? Show Answer

Q1182) Which one of the following statements is
incorrect?
Show Answer

Q1183) Contribution towards Rural Infrastructure Development Fund is made by Show Answer